Archives: Quiz

What does the presence of phosphatidyglycerol (PG) in the amniotic fluid indicate? a. low risk of development of respiratory distress b. high risk of development of respiratory distress c. immature fetal lungs d. uncertain fetal lung maturity What is the […]

How is oxygen diffusion affected when pulmonary edema is present? a. Diffusion is indirectly related to thickness of the a-c membrane so diffusion will decrease b. Diffusion is indirectly related to the thickness of the a-c membrane so diffusion will […]

Which hemodynamic parameter is a reflection of the contractility of the left ventricle? a. LVSWI b. cardiac output c. CI d. stroke volume When breathing FIO2 1.0 at seal level, what would the PN2 in the alveoli equal? a. 0 […]

How many times per minute do the cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move? a. 1500 times b. 2500 times c. 500 times d. 50 times What is the normal adult BSA? a. 1.5 – 2 m2 b. 1.1-1.49 m2 c. […]

Where are eosinophils primarily located? a. lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts b. alveoli c. above the vocal cords d. kidneys, liver, and lining of therespiratory tract What is the term for the C-fibers located near the alveolar capillaries? […]

Which portion of an ECG tracing represents atrial depolarization? a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. U wave How much oxygen can dissolve in a plasma at body temperature? a. 0.003 mL/dL/mmHg PO2 b. 0.03 mL/dL/mmHg PO2 […]

How does the normal adult’s respiratory pattern change when lung compliance decreases? a. respiratory rate increases and tidal volume decreases b. respiratory rate decreases and tidal volume increase c. respiratory rate and tidal volume increase d. respiratory rate and tidal […]

What is “best PEEP”? a. The PEEP level that has the least hemodynamic compromise and the maximum total oxygen delivery b. The PEEP level that has the lowest effect on PaCO2 c. The PEEP level that delivers the highest PaO2 […]

What is the term for the total of all nights of lost sleep? a. sleep debt b. sleep latency c. exhaustion quotient d. sleepiness quotient How would the body respond to a systemic capillary pressure of 22 mm Hg? a. […]

Which type of anemia is due to snake venom? a. hemolytic b. hemorrhagic c. pernicious d. aplastic Which low voltage wave may become more prominent in the presence of electrolyte disturbances, heart disease, or certain medications? a. U wave b. […]

What is the term for the viscous layer of the mucous blanket? a. gel b. sol c. basal d. epoxic Which of the following influence the volume of dissolved gas that moves into a diver’s tissues during a deep dive? […]

What does a P50 of 30 indicate? a. a rightward shift of the curve meaning a decreased affinity of hemoglobin for O2 b. a rightward shift of the curve meaning an increased affinity of hemoglobin for O2 c. a leftward […]

What is the formula for calculating the maximum heart rate? a. maximum heart rate = 220 – (age in years) b. maximum heart rate = 250- (age in years x 2) c. maximum heart rate = 220 – (age in […]

At rest, what portion of the muscle capillaries are dilated? a. 20-25% b. 2-5% c. 30-35% d. 5-10% In the newborn, at what angles do the right and left mainstem bronchi form with the trachea? a. both form a 55 […]

What volume of carbon dioxide is produced per minute by the average adult at rest? a. 200 mL/min b. 250 mL/min c. 100 mL/min d. 150 mL/min To what structure is the uvula attached? a. soft palate b. hard palate […]

Which of the following statements are true regarding a capnogram? I. It is a direct measurement of PCO2 eliminated by the lungs II. It is an indirect measurement of PCO2 eliminated by the lungs III. It is an indirect measurement […]

Which ions account for over 90% of the positively charged ions in extracellular fluid? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca+ d. Mg+ What is the term for the movement of gas from the external environment to the alveoli ? a. […]

Which structures form the upper third of the nose? I. Nasal bones II. Frontal process of maxilla III. Lateral nasal cartilage IV. Greater alar cartilage a. I and II only b. I , II, and III only c. I. II, […]

Which condition is described as “a state of unconsciousness from which one cannot be awakened by even the most forceful stimuli”? a. coma b. sleep c. lethargy d. deep sleep Which structures form the posterior section of the floor of […]

Explain the significance of the Ninth Amendment relative to federal power. Describe at least eight instances in which Miranda need not be given. Answer: Generally, the Miranda warning need not be given: •When the officer asks no questions. •During general […]

The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any criminal case where controversies over the death penalty are involved. Discuss what alleged racial disparities exist within our criminal justice system. Answer: Discrimination has been alleged to exist throughout the criminal justice […]

For a search to have occurred, government agents must make physical entry into someone’s property. Describe the purposes and accomplishments of the two Continental Congresses. Answer: The First Continental Congress (September 5″October 26, 1774) met to discuss mounting complaints against […]

. In Presser v. Illinois (1886), the Court refused to _______________ the Second Amendment into the Fourteenth Amendment. Wikipedia is considered a reliable source for academic purposes. Answer: F The Sixth Amendment provides the accused with an attorney not only […]

Police may arrest for an unwitnessed felony based on ________. _____________ is an attitude; discrimination is a behavior. Answer: prejudice A person’s refusal to give consent to search can be used to establish probable cause. Answer: F Discuss in detail […]

The exception to the exclusionary rule referring to instances in which the preponderance of evidence suggests the defendant’s guilt and that the illegal evidence is not critical to proving the case is known as ____________. A person who becomes mentally […]

The Constitution was originally drafted to limit the power of: a. the federal government. b. governments of the 13 independent colonial states. c. British rule over the colonies. d. Congress. The powers kept by the states under the Tenth Amendment […]

Which state does not allow hanging as a method of execution? a. Washington b. Delaware c. Texas d. New Hampshire Professional literature is written for the: a. layperson. b. practitioner in a given field. c. research analyst. d. undergraduate level […]

Protected forms of speech include all of the following, except: a. burning the American flag. b. protesting abortion clinics. c. advocating the violent overthrow of the government. d. swearing at a law enforcement officer. The Amendment which describes the requirements […]

The Supreme Court stated that the Second Amendment protects an individual’s right to possess a firearm unconnected with service in a militia in: a. United States v. Miller b. District of Columbia v. Heller c. Presser v. Illinois d. Stevens […]

The Smith Act (1940): a. banned nude dancing. b. made it unlawful to advocate overthrowing the government by force. c. established national standards for obscenity. d. established the “clear and probable danger” test. In Arizona v. Fulminante, the Court ruled […]

The Amendment that contains the famous due process clause, “nor shall any person be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law,” is the: a. Fifth Amendment b. Sixth Amendment c. Fourth Amendment d. Eighth Amendment A(n) […]

The USA PATRIOT Act improves counter-terrorism efforts by all of the following, except: a. allowing investigators to use tools already available to investigate organized crime and drug trafficking. b. facilitating information sharing and cooperation among government agencies. c. increasing penalties […]

Which of the following is not one of the five legitimate uses of force (“Rules of Engagement”)? a. effectuate an arrest b. prevent escape c. overcome resistance d. overcome objections Perhaps one of the most fundamental constitutional rights of prisoners […]

The United States Supreme Court struck down the portion of the Brady Bill which compelled local law enforcement to perform background checks on handgun applicants, holding the requirement violated: a. the right to privacy. b. separate state sovereignty c. the […]

In order for a confession to be admissible it must be: a. voluntary. b. true. c. independently corroborated. d. in writing. Searches of vehicles incident to the arrest of an occupant area allowed only if the officer has a reasonable […]

In order for speech to be considered obscene, and thus not protected by the First Amendment, it must be all of the following except: a. the work arouses erotic sexual interest. b. the work taken as a whole appeals to […]

The Thirteenth Amendment: a. overturned the Dred Scott decision and prohibits slavery. b. outlines the structure of the federal judiciary. c. established how representatives are apportioned and what their qualifications are.. d. prohibited the sale and purchase of intoxicating liquors. […]

The caption of a case tells: a. in what other digests the case may be found. b. the parties that are involved in a case. c. when the case was first filed with the court. d. who won the case. […]

Individual rights proponents claim that: a. only military and law enforcement personnel have a right to possess firearms. b. citizens should be permitted to possess only a single, individual weapon, not an entire arsenal. c. the framers of the Constitution […]

Even though jobs may be at the same level on the organizational chart, they may differ in the number of tasks required and the amount of authority workers have. Decision sciences focuses on statistics. Answer: T A corporate level strategy […]

Describe the four ways that organization’s can strategically use to build competitive advantage. Quality planning is concerned with inspection and test planning. Answer: T The final state of Lewin’s model is desired state. Answer: T Individuals in different departments often […]

Job enrichment aims to increase employee motivation and satisfaction through attractive salary and benefits packages. Describe three skills of effective team members. Answer: p. 332 In organizations, control is both a process and an outcome. Answer: T Classical theory concentrated […]

Describe the Hersey-Blanchard situational leadership theory. How is this theory useful to managers? Foresight-led change involves looking into the future, determining what the future is projected to be, and then using that insight to change an organization in the present. […]

The human relations approach focuses on the social environment. Follower readiness is measured by willingness, ability, and personality. Answer: F In organizations, a written communication medium is always preferred because it provides a record of the message. Answer: F Fiedler […]

A supply chain is a network of suppliers and customers attached to the same organization. The selection process begins with deciding which applicants to interview for a position. Answer: F Direction includes determining standards for subordinates to meet in performing […]

The Environmental Protection Agency is the federal agency charged with enforcing laws designed to protect the environment. Intrinsic rewards are the intangible psychological results of work that are controlled by the worker. Answer: T An example of upward communication is […]

Face-to-face oral communication is the most effective communication medium because noise is eliminated. Police officers have higher agreeableness than managers. Answer: T Discuss the job characteristics approach to job enrichment. Answer: pp. 192-193 Revolutionary business activity occurs periodically and forever […]

Discuss Taylor’s contribution to and the criticism of scientific management? How did open systems change the thinking about management as a practice? Answer: pp. 33-35 W. Edwards Deming recommends that organizations inspect 100 percent of their products to ensure quality. […]

In a work context, what is persuasion? Provide an example situation that includes two people that illustrates the concept of persuasion. The purpose of job analysis is to record a supervisor’s view of what a specific job should entail. Answer: […]

The terms planned strategy and emergent strategy mean the same thing. The MBTI is an instrument used to measure personality and classify people into types. Answer: T According to the authors, computer and communication skills are primary skills. Answer: F […]