Name:
Class:
Date:
True / False
1. Teams usually require different types of skills to be effective.
a.
True
b.
False
True
2. The collection of people who attend a class together could be called a group.
a.
True
b.
False
True
3. Having a common purpose and common performance goals sets the tone and direction of a virtual team.
a.
True
b.
False
True
4. Gain-sharing programs usually reward all team members from all teams based on the performance of one particular
team.
a.
True
b.
False
False
5. Team bonus plans are similar to gain-sharing plans in that the unit of performance used for pay is the entire
organization.
a.
True
b.
False
False
6. Skill-based pay systems require team members to acquire important skills that affect compensation.
a.
True
b.
False
True
7. Teams can reduce the degree of stress that employees experience on the job.
a.
True
b.
False
True
8. The use of teams can eliminate redundant layers of bureaucracy and flatten the hierarchy on a company.
a.
True
b.
False
9. Teams do not usually take a great deal of time to develop, which is one of the advantages of using teams in companies.
Name:
Class:
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a.
True
b.
False
False
10. Quality circles can be permanent work groups.
a.
True
b.
False
True
11. Problem-solving teams are permanent teams that make recommendations for others to implement.
a.
True
b.
False
False
12. Management teams are teams that may never actually meet together in the same room, but instead rely on
teleconferencing and other electronic information systems.
a.
True
b.
False
False
13. Virtual teams usually utilize some form of technology to enhance communication among individuals who are
members of the team.
a.
True
b.
False
True
14. Implementing teams in organizations is not easy; it takes a lot of hard work, time, training, and patience.
a.
True
b.
False
True
15. Implementation of self-managing work teams often takes less than six months.
a.
True
b.
False
False
16. In the reality and unrest phase of team implementation, team members and managers often report frustration and
confusion about the new situation.
a.
True
b.
False
True
17. Tightly formed teams may become overconfident and reduce their communication with other teams in the
organization.
a.
True
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b.
False
True
18. Change starts at the top in every successful team implementation.
a.
True
b.
False
True
19. A task group is relatively temporary and formal.
a.
True
b.
False
True
20. A command group is a type of informal group.
a.
True
b.
False
False
21. A friendship group often performs its duties outside of regular work hours.
a.
True
b.
False
True
22. Getting to know one another is part of the mutual acceptance stage of group development.
a.
True
b.
False
True
23. Group norms are developed in the control and organization stage of group development.
a.
True
b.
False
False
24. Some groups fail to complete certain stages of development before moving on to later stages.
a.
True
b.
False
True
25. All groups go through all four stages of group development before disbanding.
a.
True
b.
False
False
26. Group productivity depends on successful growth at each stage of the group development process.
a.
True
Name:
Class:
Date:
b.
False
True
27. The basic group performance factors include groupthink, social loafing, and norm creation.
a.
True
b.
False
False
28. A group is homogenous if the members are similar in one or more ways that are critical to the work of the group.
a.
True
b.
False
True
29. A homogeneous group is likely to be more productive when the group task is simple, cooperation is necessary, the
group tasks are sequential, and quick action is required.
a.
True
b.
False
True
30. A heterogeneous group is more likely to be productive when the task is complex, requires a collective effort, and
demands creativity.
a.
True
b.
False
True
31. Social loafing is the tendency of some group members to put forth high levels of effort, which ultimately reduces self–
policing.
a.
True
b.
False
False
32. In most situations, the most effective group size is 30 or more members because more ideas are generated.
a.
True
b.
False
False
33. A group norm is a standard against which the appropriateness of a behavior is judged.
a.
True
b.
False
True
34. Cohesiveness is generally higher in small groups than it is in large groups.
a.
True
b.
False
True
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Date:
35. Increasing group interaction will not usually affect the cohesiveness of the group.
a.
True
b.
False
False
36. Highly cohesive groups will be more productive for the organization than groups with low cohesiveness.
a.
True
b.
False
False
37. Communication in Western cultures is typically indirect and vague.
a.
True
b.
False
False
38. Compared with managers from other countries, U.S. managers like to make decisions cautiously and with
extensive analysis.
a.
True
b.
False
False
Multiple Choice
39. Teams differ from groups in that teams
a.
place more emphasis on concerted action than groups do.
b.
are usually larger than groups.
c.
are usually temporary.
d.
place little emphasis on common objectives.
e.
pursue multiple goals.
a
40. A team is characterized by all of the following except
a.
complementary skills.
b.
profit motive.
c.
mutual accountability.
d.
small number of people.
e.
commitment to a common purpose.
b
41. ____ is a reward system commonly found in team environments.
a.
Skill-based pay
b.
Stock options
c.
Commission-based pay
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d.
Annual profit sharing
e.
Seniority-based pay
42. What is the best reason to create teams in an organization?
a.
They can increase productivity almost immediately.
b.
Teams are always well received by employees.
c.
Teams are increasing in popularity.
d.
The competition is also implementing teams.
e.
Teams make sense for that organization.
43. Why does working in teams result in enhanced performance?
a.
Waste and errors are spread across multiple individuals.
b.
Managers lower their performance standards.
c.
Team members spend less time in direct contact with customers.
d.
Teams pool individual efforts in new ways and strive for continuous improvement.
e.
Taller hierarchies improve communication processes.
d
44. Why do younger workers seem to benefit from team environments?
a.
Supervision in teams is increased.
b.
Workers receive higher wages in team environments.
c.
Individuals receive more recognition in team environments.
d.
Teams give them freedom to grow and manage themselves.
e.
Teams increase employees’ respect for authority.
d
45. Which of the following is not an example of cost reductions arising from team environments?
a.
Reduced absenteeism
b.
Reduced scrap
c.
Lower turnover
d.
Fewer errors
e.
Lower commitment
46. Which of the following is not an example of an organizational enhancement arising from team environments?
a.
Taller organizational hierarchy
b.
Quicker reaction
c.
Increased innovation
d.
Higher creativity
e.
Improved flexibility
Name:
Class:
Date:
47. What is (are) the new role(s) of managers in teams?
a.
Supervisors and evaluators
b.
Top managers
c.
Team members
d.
Technical specialists
e.
Coaches and facilitators
48. Which of the following statements best reflects the costs of teams to organizations?
a.
The increased bureaucracy
b.
The loss of creativity
c.
The difficulty of changing to a team-based organization
d.
Increased worker compensation claims
e.
Increased distance between employees and top management
49. The positive benefits of a team-based environment include all of the following except
a.
enhanced performance.
b.
employee benefits.
c.
organizational enhancements.
d.
reduced costs.
e.
all of these are benefits
50. The cost of teams includes which of the following factors?
a.
the difficulty of changing to a team-based organization.
b.
an increase in innovation and creativity.
c.
adverse impact on the bottom line.
d.
increased social loafing.
e.
decreased groupthink.
51. William is a member of a small group of employees from different work areas. They meet once each week to discuss
and recommend solutions to workplace problems. This group is most likely a(n)
a.
problem-solving team
b.
interdisciplinary team
c.
work team
d.
management team
e.
quality circle
52. A team that is comprised of members from different departments or functional areas is a(n)
a.
interdisciplinary team.
b.
work team.
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c.
cross-functional team.
d.
problem-solving team.
e.
quality circle.
c
53. The primary job of ____ is to create new products, processes, or businesses.
a.
interdisciplinary teams
b.
quality circles
c.
problem-solving teams
d.
work teams
e.
venture teams
e
54. A team that never actually meets together in the same room is called a
a.
virtual team.
b.
quality circle.
c.
cross-functional team.
d.
product development team.
e.
management team.
a
55. Which of the following is NOT an important leadership skill in a virtual project team or distance management
situation?
a.
Building community among team members based on mutual trust, respect, affiliation, and fairness.
b.
Leading with directness and focusing on abstract results.
c.
Establishing a clear and motivating shared vision.
d.
Communicating effectively and matching technology to the situation.
e.
Coordinating and collaborating across organizational boundaries.
b
56. A team ____________ is a written agreement among team members establishing ground rules about the team’s
processes, roles, and responsibilities.
a.
outline
b.
commitment
c.
contract
d.
agreement
e.
quality circle
c
57. The move towards a team-based format is often initiated and communicated to the entire organization by
a.
internal team leaders.
b.
the design team.
c.
top management.
d.
affinity groups.
Name:
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e.
an outside consultant.
c
58. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for dealing with the challenges of multicultural teams?
a.
one–on-one conferencing
b.
adaptation
c.
managerial intervention
d.
exit
e.
structural intervention
a
59. ________ happens when people are motivated to look good to others and want to maintain a positive self-
image
a.
Managerial intervention
b.
Social facilitation
c.
Groupthink
d.
Social loafing
e.
Group cohesiveness
b
60. When choosing team members, which of the following abilities would you NOT specifically look for?
a.
persuasiveness
b.
conflict resolution
c.
collaborative problem-solving
d.
self-management
e.
communication
a
61. A(n) _______ is a person who engages in leadership activities but whose right to do so has not been
formally recognized.
a.
team manager
b.
team specialist
c.
executive
d.
informal leader
e.
none of the above
d
62. Videoconferencing, instant messaging, electric meetings, and even conference calls are considered
__________ technology.
a.
asynchronous
b.
futuristic
c.
team-specific
d.
ineffective
Name:
Class:
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e.
synchronous
e
63. The start-up phase of team implementation includes which of the following?
a.
Frustration and confusion about the new situation
b.
Extreme confidence and cohesion
c.
Intense team loyalty
d.
Teams think of themselves as a unit
e.
Informational or “awareness” training
e
64. In the ____ phase of team implementation, enthusiasm runs high and the anticipation of employees is quite positive.
a.
self-managing teams
b.
start-up
c.
leader-centered teams
d.
tightly formed teams
e.
reality and unrest
b
65. During the ____ phase of team implementation, managers should provide encouragement, monitor performance, and
sometimes protect teams from those who want to see the team fail.
a.
self-managing teams
b.
tightly formed teams
c.
leader-centered teams
d.
reality and unrest
e.
start-up
d
66. During the ____ phase of team implementation, a team’s internal focus can become detrimental to other teams and to
the organization as a whole.
a.
start-up
b.
reality and unrest
c.
tightly formed teams
d.
leader-center teams
e.
self-managing teams
c
67. During the ____ phase of team implementation, teams usually long for a system that resembles the old organizational
structure.
a.
tightly formed teams
b.
start-up
c.
leader-centered teams
d.
self-managing teams
e.
reality and unrest
Name:
Class:
Date:
c
68. During the ____ phase of team implementation, managers have withdrawn from the daily operations and are
counseling teams.
a.
tightly formed teams
b.
start-up
c.
leader-centered teams
d.
self-managing teams
e.
reality and unrest
d
69. The two essential issues that must not be overlooked when implementing teams are
a.
team performance and top management support.
b.
implementation and team performance.
c.
starting at the top and member loyalty.
d.
team performance and team motivation.
e.
team motivation and reward systems.
a
70. Shortly after implementation, team performance often ____ before returning to previous levels.
a.
fluctuates unpredictably
b.
ceases completely
c.
increases slightly
d.
declines
e.
dramatically increases
d
71. Susan is the senior manager at her company. Susan made the choice to go to teams because she went to a seminar on
teams, but she’ll be on a two-year foreign assignment when teams are actually implemented. Which of the following is
likely to occur?
a.
The teams will be performing well by the time she returns.
b.
The teams will be more broad spread than normal.
c.
The teams will become self-managing more quickly than normal.
d.
A complete organizational culture revolution is likely to occur.
e.
The teams are likely to fail.
e
72. The concept of ____ is essential to the definition of groups presented in your text.
a.
interaction
b.
coordination
c.
cohesion
d.
member personality
e.
proximity
a
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Class:
Date:
73. The definition of groups presented in your text omits any requirement of
a.
interaction.
b.
size.
c.
influence.
d.
group goals.
e.
All of these are included in the textbook definition of group.
d
74. The size or number of people that constitute a group is
a.
ten or more.
b.
limited to fifteen.
c.
fewer than two people.
d.
limited to ten.
e.
two or more.
e
75. A new product development team is an example of which type of group?
a.
Friendship
b.
Interest
c.
Performance
d.
Task
e.
Affinity
e
76. Which of the following is a formal group?
a.
Interest
b.
Friendship
c.
Social
d.
Command
e.
Grapevine
d
77. A group of department managers who meet periodically to establish corporate policy is an example of which type of
group?
a.
Special project
b.
Friendship
c.
Task
d.
Interest
e.
Command
e
78. ____ are usually temporary and are established to solve a particular problem.
a.
Friendship groups
Name:
Class:
Date:
b.
Task groups
c.
Affinity groups
d.
Interest groups
e.
Command groups
b
79. ____ are informal and organized around a particular activity.
a.
Friendship groups
b.
Interest groups
c.
Command groups
d.
All groups
e.
Task groups
b
80. The audience at an Oprah Winfrey talk show is an example of a(n) ____ group.
a.
special project
b.
command
c.
task
d.
friendship
e.
interest
e
81. ____ are informal and relatively permanent.
a.
Special project groups
b.
Command groups
c.
Interest groups
d.
Friendship groups
e.
Task groups
d
82. A motorcycle riding club that meets outside of the organization an example of which type of group?
a.
Task
b.
Interest
c.
Command
d.
Friendship
e.
Convenience
b
83. Which of the following is a type of informal group?
a.
Special project
b.
Friendship
c.
Task
d.
Command
Name:
Class:
Date:
e.
Affinity
b
84. Which of the following is not a stage of group development?
a.
Control and organization
b.
Motivation and productivity
c.
Mutual acceptance
d.
Communication and decision making
e.
Friendship and social interaction
e
85. Which of the following is the final stage of group development?
a.
Control and organization
b.
Mutual acceptance
c.
Cohesiveness
d.
Homogeneity
e.
Conflict and reorganization
a
86. The group members express their views more openly in the ____ stage of group development?
a.
mutual acceptance
b.
communication and decision making
c.
productivity
d.
control and organization
e.
motivation
b
87. In which stage of group development do members develop norms of behavior?
a.
Mutual acceptance
b.
Control and organization
c.
Communication and decision making
d.
Motivation and productivity
e.
Reformation
d
88. In which stage is the group considered to be mature?
a.
Communication and decision making
b.
Motivation
c.
Productivity
d.
Mutual acceptance
e.
Control and organization
e
89. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the stages of group development?
Name:
Class:
Date:
a.
A group that fully evolves through the four stages of development usually is productive.
b.
As a group progresses through the stages of development it grows in size.
c.
The sequence of group development stages is set by the organization.
d.
Groups rarely go through more than one stage of development.
e.
Groups make choices about which stage of development to complete first.
a
90. Which of the following is one of the four basic factors that affect group performance?
a.
Escalation of commitment
b.
Groupthink
c.
Task deformation
d.
Composition
e.
Social loafing
d
91. Group composition is
a.
the sum of the activities of individuals.
b.
a set of expected behaviors associated with a position.
c.
usually described in terms of the homogeneity or heterogeneity of group members.
d.
two or more people interacting with and influencing each other.
e.
expected behavior or behavioral patterns.
c
92. A group is homogeneous if
a.
members are similar in one or several ways that are critical to the work of the group.
b.
the group is highly productive.
c.
two or more people interact with and influence each other.
d.
men and women are represented equally in the group.
e.
the organization allows the group a high degree of autonomy.
a
93. A homogeneous group tends to be LESS productive than a heterogeneous group in situations where
a.
group tasks are sequential.
b.
quick action is required.
c.
cooperation is needed.
d.
group tasks are simple.
e.
creativity is required.
e
94. Group norms result from a combination of all of the following, except
a.
the task.
b.
the situation.
c.
the personality characteristics.
Name:
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Date:
d.
the size of the group.
e.
the historical traditions of the group.
d
95. All of the following are true of large groups except
a.
large groups have formalized interactions.
b.
large groups set agendas.
c.
large do not set many rules or regulations.
d.
large groups follow parliamentary procedures.
e.
large groups offer more social interactions.
96. All of the following are true regarding social loafing except
a.
it is often a problem in very small groups.
b.
how much of a problem social loafing depends in part on the nature of the task.
c.
it often results from the assumption that other members will pick up the slack.
d.
some members put forth less effort in a group.
e.
the amount of social loafing depends in part on the group leader’s awareness of it.
97. Norms are
a.
a tendency toward a particular set of behaviors.
b.
a standard against which the appropriateness of a behavior is judged.
c.
the sum of the activities of individuals.
d.
two or more people interacting with and influencing each other.
e.
a set of expected behaviors associated with position.
b
98. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of norms?
a.
Norms help the group avoid embarrassing situations.
b.
Norms simplify the behaviors of the group members.
c.
Norms help the group survive.
d.
Norms regulate group members’ thoughts and feelings.
e.
Norms express the central values of the group.
d
99. When cohesiveness is ____ and norms are ____ compatible with organizational goals, productivity is the highest.
a.
low; not
b.
high; not
c.
high; highly
d.
present; highly
e.
low; highly
Name:
Class:
Date:
100. ____ cohesive groups will not necessarily be more productive in an organizational sense than groups with ____
cohesiveness.
a.
Low; high
b.
Low; low
c.
Highly; high
d.
Highly; low
e.
Moderately; high
d
Completion
101. A group is two or more persons who ____________________ with one another in such a way that each person is
influenced by or influences another person.
interact
102. ____________________ groups are relatively permanent collections of employees from the same level in the
organization who meet on a regular basis.
Affinity
103. Informal groups consist of friendship and ____________________ groups.
interest
104. The five ___________________________________ are composition, size, norms, informal leadership, and
cohesiveness.
group performance factors
105. Members usually begin to develop ____________________ of behavior during the communication and decision-
making stage of group development.
norms
106. Group ____________________ describes the degree of similarity or difference among group members.
composition
107. A group is ____________________ if the members are different in one or several ways that are critical to the work.
heterogeneous
108. Some members of the group assume that if they do not work hard, other members of the group will pick up the slack.
This is known as ___________________________________.
social loafing
109. One of the purposes of group ____________________ is to simplify and make more predictable the behaviors
expected of the group members.
norms
110. Successfully reaching goals often increases the ____________________ of a group because people are proud to be
identified with a winner and to be thought of as competent and successful.
cohesiveness
Name:
Class:
Date:
Essay
111. Describe the costs associated with moving to a team-based organization.
Answer not provided.
112. Which types of teams discussed in the chapter could successfully operate as virtual teams? Provide support for your
answer.
Answer not provided.
113. Describe the different types of formal and informal groups. Which groups do you think are most productive?
Answer not provided.
114. Describe, discuss, and give examples of the various stages of group development.
Answer not provided.
115. Describe the relationship between group composition and performance.
Answer not provided.
Matching
Match each of the following descriptions with the type of group or team it most clearly illustrates.
a.
In writing this book, much of the communication was done over the Internet and several team members have never
actually met in person.
b.
A gynecology clinic wants to replace its paper-based record-keeping system with an electronic one. The head of
the clinic puts together a team of IT professionals to choose which software system to buy and then implement it.
c.
Maxine is a technical writer, as is everyone on her team.
d.
Ivan puts together a group of people to play a new Dungeons and Dragons campaign. Once the campaign is
finished, the group will disband.
e.
Helga is part of a semi-autonomous team that develops new technologies for her company.
f.
Simon, a quality assurance expert, is a top manager who works closely with top managers in software
development, documentation, and technical support.
g.
Psyche and her companies meet regularly to drink whiskey and play the ukulele.
116. problem-solving team
b
117. interest group
d
118. friendship group
g
119. venture team
e
120. cross-functional team
Name:
Class:
Date:
121. virtual team
122. functional team
Match each of the following scenarios with the concept it most clearly illustrates.
a.
Dave doesn’t usually get along with the other members of his marketing team, but when a huge deadline is
unexpectedly pulled forward by one week, the team comes together, supports each other, and works together to get
the project done. The experience brings them closer.
b.
Sarah knows that because her team has a lot of high achievers, she doesn’t have to volunteer for any of the extra
tasks her team is assigned — somebody else will get them done.
c.
Dina is a math teacher. Although she is technically “just another teacher,” the respect that she commands from the
other teachers usually means that projects won’t go through without her approval.
123. informal leader
124. social loafing
125. group cohesiveness