51) A test validation method that determines whether a test measures certain traits that job
analysis finds to be important in performing a job is referred to as ________ validity.
A) construct
B) content
C) concurrent
D) predictive
52) During the selection process for an IT position, Jeff was required to take a test that measured
his memory and vocabulary. Which type of test did Jeff most likely take?
A) work–sample
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) cognitive ability
53) Hannah is applying for a job as a technician at a manufacturing facility. The job requires
employees to use magnifying lenses when assembling products. Which type of test did Hannah
most likely take?
A) cognitive aptitude
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) work–sample
54) During the selection process for a telemarketing position, Alex was given a test to measure
his awareness of the job’s duties. Which type of test did Alex most likely take?
A) psychomotor abilities
B) cognitive aptitude
C) job knowledge
D) work–sample
55) Kim is applying for a job as an accounts specialist, which will require extensive use of Excel.
During the selection process, the employer provides Kim with data and asks her to compile an
Excel spreadsheet with the information. Which type of test did Kim most likely take?
A) cognitive aptitude
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) work–sample
56) Craig is applying for a sales position at a commercial real estate firm. The HR manager gave
Craig the Myers–Briggs test during the selection process. Which of the following is most likely
being measured by the firm?
A) personality traits
B) cognitive abilities
C) vocational interest
D) psychomotor skills
57) Kara took a test that indicated she has a predisposition for breast cancer. What type of test
did Kara most likely take?
A) blood
B) genetic
C) urine
D) skin
58) Which law protects healthy individuals who have a genetic predisposition for a disease?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) Family and Medical Leave Act
C) Davis–Bacon Act
D) Equal Pay Act
59) The ________ is designed to prohibit the improper use of genetic information in health
insurance and employment.
A) Freedom of Information Act
B) Federal Genealogy Act
C) Americans with Disabilities Act
D) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
60) Which Act limited the use of polygraph tests in the private sector?
A) Lie Detector Protection Act of 2001
B) Federal Polygraph Protection Act of 1999
C) Polygraph Confirmation Act of 1990
D) Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988
61) Persons who take polygraph tests have all of the following rights EXCEPT the ________.
A) right to refuse or discontinue a test
B) right to a written notice before testing
C) right to review results prior to distribution
D) right not to have test results disclosed to unauthorized persons
62) What selection technique requires individuals to perform activities similar to those they
might encounter in an actual job?
A) psychomotor abilities test
B) assessment center
C) vocational interest test
D) job–related center
63) Firms most likely use assessment centers during the selection process to ________.
A) compare applicants with current employees
B) predict the job performance of applicants
C) assess an applicant’s job motivation
D) ensure applicants are healthy
64) Kelly is applying for a position with Citibank and will be participating in an assessment
center. Which of the following activities is Kelly LEAST likely to do in the assessment center?
A) in–basket exercises
B) management games
C) psychomotor abilities tests
D) leaderless discussion groups
65) Studies indicate that selection tests accurately predict the extent to which an individual will
be motivated to perform a specific job.
66) The problems of hiring unqualified or less qualified candidates and rejecting qualified
candidates have been eliminated since firms began using selection tests.
67) Objectivity refers to the uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to administering
tests.
68) Validity in testing occurs when everyone scoring a test obtains the same results.
69) Validity is the extent to which a selection test provides consistent results.
70) Title VII requires the test to work without having an adverse impact on minorities, females,
and individuals with backgrounds or characteristics protected under the law.
71) Criterion–related validity is determined by comparing the scores on selection tests to an
aspect of job performance, such as quality of work.
72) Construct validity is a test validation method that determines whether a test measures
personal traits that are important in performing a job.
73) Predictive validity is considered an inexpensive and quick method for establishing the
validity of a selection test.
74) An IQ test is a type of cognitive ability test.
75) Psychomotor abilities tests measure a candidate’s knowledge of the duties of the job for
which he or she is applying.
76) Job-knowledge tests require an applicant to perform a task or set of tasks representative of
the job.
77) Personality tests assess an applicant‘s traits and temperaments and help firms determine an
individual’s leadership and teamwork skills.
78) An assessment center is a selection approach that requires individuals to perform activities
similar to those they might encounter in an actual job.
79) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using selection tests? What are some of the
characteristics of well–designed selection tests?
80) In a brief essay, discuss the uses for cognitive ability tests, psychomotor abilities tests, and
work–sample tests. Provide specific examples to illustrate your response.
81) What is a goal-oriented conversation in which the interviewer and applicant exchange
information called?
A) recruitment interview
B) training interview
C) development interview
D) employment interview
82) What selection method continues to be the primary method companies use to evaluate
applicants?
A) background checks
B) cognitive ability tests
C) employment interviews
D) assessment centers
83) Robert, an HR manager, is preparing to interview candidates for a software engineer
position. Which of the following is LEAST likely to appear on Robert’s interview planning
checklist?
A) developing questions related to the qualities sought
B) prescreening additional applicants with behavioral selection tests
C) comparing an applicant’s application and résumé with job requirements
D) preparing a step–by-step plan to present the position, company, division, and department
84) Which of the following issues is LEAST relevant during an employment interview?
A) occupational experience
B) interpersonal skills
C) personal likes and dislikes
D) academic achievement
85) A ________ refers to a tendency of an interviewer to form a generalized positive impression
of an applicant, and rate that person highly on all rating criteria even if the applicant really
doesn’t deserve a high rating for every one of them.
A) contrast bias
B) stereotyping bias
C) premature judgment bias
D) positive halo error bias
86) A(n) ________ occurs when an interviewer assumes that an applicant has certain traits
because he or she is a member of a certain class.
A) contrast bias
B) stereotyping bias
C) premature judgment bias
D) interview illusion bias
87) The concept of ________ suggests that interviewers often make a judgment about a
candidate during the first few minutes of the interview.
A) stereotyping bias
B) contrast bias
C) interview illusion bias
D) premature judgment bias
88) What does the unstructured interview involve?
A) asking candidates probing, open-ended questions
B) using novice interviewers to assess candidates
C) validating candidate test scores against norms
D) asking identical questions to all candidates
89) What type of interview is comprehensive and involves the applicant talking more than the
interviewer?
A) unstructured
B) structured
C) stress
D) directive
90) What type of interview has potential legal problems because of the likelihood of discussing
potentially discriminatory information?
A) structured
B) unstructured
C) stress
D) directive
91) A structured interview usually contains all of the following questions EXCEPT ________.
A) situational questions
B) job knowledge questions
C) job sample simulation questions
D) family and medical history questions
92) Behavioral interviews are primarily intended to determine all of the following qualities about
an applicant EXCEPT ________.
A) challenging situation
B) quantify task results
C) resolution to a situation
D) interaction with others
93) A structured interview where applicants are asked to relate actual incidents from their past
relevant to the target job is referred to as a ________.
A) stress interview
B) career–related preview
C) behavioral interview
D) realistic interview
94) During a job interview, Sara is asked to describe a time when she was responsible for
motivating others. Which of the following most likely describes this type of interview?
A) group interview
B) stress interview
C) board interview
D) behavioral interview
95) Several applicants interacting in the presence of one or more interviewers is typical of what
type of interview?
A) stress
B) board
C) group
D) role-play
96) Several of the firm‘s representatives interviewing a candidate at the same time is typical of
what type of interview?
A) group
B) board
C) stress
D) role-play
97) What type of interview is most likely being conducted when an interviewer says, “I think
your answer is totally inadequate: it doesn’t deal with my concerns at all, can’t you do better than
that?“
A) stress
B) board
C) group
D) behavioral
98) Purposely making the candidate uncomfortable by asking blunt and often discourteous
questions would most likely occur during a ________ interview.
A) nondirective
B) stress
C) board
D) group
99) What process conveys positive and negative job information to the applicant in an unbiased
manner?
A) advancement–related preview
B) career–related preview
C) job–related preview
D) realistic job preview
100) When should a realistic job preview be given to applicants?
A) after a job offer is made
B) early in the selection process
C) during a performance appraisal
D) during employee orientation
101) The most basic interviewing rule is to ________.
A) dominate every aspect of the interview
B) never let a job applicant see you sweat
C) ask only job-related questions
D) save the realistic job preview until after the candidate has been hired
102) Situational interviews focus on how an individual handled job-related circumstances in the
past.
103) Interviews are valid predictors of success on the job, which is why they are commonly used
to evaluate applicants.
104) In the board interview, the interviewer deliberately makes the candidate uncomfortable by
asking blunt and often discourteous questions.
105) During an unstructured interview, an interviewer will most likely ask open-ended questions
to encourage the applicant to talk.