Human Resource Management, 15e (Martocchio)
Chapter 6 Selection
1) The number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job is the ________.
A) application tracking system
B) preliminary screening
C) applicant pool
D) reference checks
2) ________ is the period of time that permits many firms to evaluate an employee’s ability
based on established performance.
A) Organizational fit
B) Selection
C) Candidate relationship management
D) Probationary
3) Which term refers to the process of choosing from a group of qualified applicants the
individual best suited for a particular position?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) HR planning
D) job bidding
4) Which of the following is the primary factor that determines the success or failure of a
company?
A) visionary business strategy
B) high-tech control systems
C) sound organizational structure
D) competent employees
5) The selection process typically begins with the ________.
A) application review
B) employment interview
C) background check
D) preliminary interview
6) Carlos, an HR manager, has reviewed the applications and résumés of five candidates for a
data analyst position at his firm. Which of the following is the most likely next step that Carlos
will take in the selection process?
A) interviewing applicants for prescreening
B) having applicants take physical exams
C) checking applicants’ references
D) giving applicants selection tests
7) A software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more efficiently is
called a(n) ________.
A) applicant tracking system
B) selection tracking process
C) cognitive aptitude test
D) job selection system
8) Applicant tracking systems are being redesigned to include ________.
A) automated résumé ranking tools
B) background check capabilities
C) customized input forms
D) quality-of-hire metrics
9) What are the two possible outcomes of a good selection decision?
A) cognitive invalid or valid
B) a qualified candidate is offered employment or an unqualified candidate is not offered
employment
C) qualified candidate not offered employment or unqualified candidate offered employment
D) low reliability or high validity
10) Selection is the process of choosing from a group of applicants the individual best suited for
a particular position and organization.
11) Hiring the wrong person is time consuming but has little monetary or emotional impact on
the firm and its employees.
12) Why is employee selection important? How can applicant tracking systems improve the
selection process?
13) What is the general purpose of the selection process? What steps are involved in the selection
process?
14) The primary purpose of the preliminary interview is ________.
A) gathering a detailed work history from applicants
B) measuring the likelihood of an applicant’s success
C) eliminating unqualified applicants
D) determining applicant interest
15) What type of résumé presents the job seeker’s characteristics and experience in terms that
accommodate the computer search process?
A) cyber résumé
B) hard hit résumé
C) electronic résumé
D) keyword résumé
16) Robert, a recent college graduate, is applying to accounting firms for an entry-level position.
Since most large firms use applicant-tracking systems, which of the following words or phrases
would be LEAST beneficial?
A) problem solving
B) PowerPoint 2010
C) organized
D) bilingual
17) Which of the following would LEAST likely appear as a preprinted statement on most job
application forms?
A) statement that the applicant’s former employers will not be contacted
B) statement that the applicant certifies everything on the form is true
C) statement that the company is an employment at will organization
D) statement that the applicant gives permission to have his or her references checked
18) Tyra, an HR manager at an automotive parts facility, received 500 online applications for 30
job openings in the production department. To determine if an applicant is qualified, Tyra will
most likely compare the information provided in each application to a ________.
A) job description
B) job–knowledge test
C) merit pay program
D) gainsharing assessment
19) Which of the following should NOT be requested on a job application form?
A) experience
B) education
C) birthplace
D) skills
20) A goal-directed summary of a person’s experience, education, and training developed for use
in the selection process is known as a(n) ________.
A) résumé
B) application form
C) job requisition
D) work sample test
21) Which term refers to words or phrases that are used to search databases for résumés that
match?
A) application match
B) job objective
C) résumé hit
D) keyword
22) The selection process usually begins with the preliminary screening interview.
23) Preliminary screening attempts to eliminate unqualified candidates quickly.
24) Federal employment laws prohibit application forms from indicating a position is
employment at will.
25) An application form is a goal-directed outline of a person’s experience, education, and
training developed for use in the selection process.
26) Most large companies use applicant-tracking systems to sort résumés, but these systems lack
the capability of flagging suspicious résumés, which is problematic for HR departments.
27) In today’s workplace, you can assume that managers and HR employees will review your
résumé.
28) Modern job seekers should use keywords to ensure that their résumés are not immediately
discarded by a firm‘s applicant–tracking system.
29) The keyword résumé uses keyword terms to describe an applicant’s characteristics and
industry-specific experience to accommodate the computer search process.
30) What type of information should be included in a résumé? How have applicant-tracking
systems altered the way résumés are written?
31) Which of the following factors would most likely be rated in a selection test?
A) habits
B) family life
C) motivation
D) financial equity
32) Selection tests may accurately predict an applicant’s ability to perform the job, but they are
less successful in indicating the extent to which the individual has the necessary ________.
A) experience
B) education
C) motivation
D) qualifications
33) Experts suggest that a slight amount of test anxiety is ________.
A) abnormal
B) beneficial
C) detrimental
D) unprofessional
34) The uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to administering tests is referred to
as ________.
A) objectivity
B) norms
C) standardization
D) reliability
35) Which of the following relates most closely to test conditions?
A) objectivity
B) norms
C) standardization
D) reliability
36) When everyone scoring a test obtains the same results, the test is said to be ________.
A) reliable
B) objective
C) valid
D) consistent
37) What provides a frame of reference for comparing an applicant’s performance with the
performance of similar individuals?
A) norms
B) keywords
C) objectivity
D) reliability
38) A selection tool that provides consistent results is said to be ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) objective
D) standardized
39) A student takes an IQ test one week and scores 140. The student retakes the test one week
later and scores 90. Which of the following best describes the test?
A) unreliable
B) abnormal
C) subjective
D) objective
40) The basic requirement for a selection test is that it be ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) objective
D) standardized
41) The extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure is known as ________.
A) reliability
B) subjectivity
C) validity
D) objectivity
42) Validity is commonly reported as a ________.
A) standard deviation
B) standard error
C) selection procedure
D) correlation coefficient
43) When are employers required to validate their selection tests?
A) There is no such requirement.
B) All selection tests are validated automatically.
C) when an employment discrimination lawsuit has been filed
D) when the selection process results in an adverse impact on a protected group
44) When criterion-related validity is used, the scores on the selection test are compared to
________.
A) scores on the pretest
B) job performance factors
C) scores on the posttest
D) a national norm
45) Comparing the scores on selection tests to some aspect of job performance is referred to as
________.
A) objective-related validity
B) standardized-related validity
C) normality–related validity
D) criterion–related validity
46) Which of the following is determined when a firm obtains test scores and criterion data at
approximately the same time?
A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
C) construct validity
D) content validity
47) Which of the following involves administering a test and later obtaining criterion
information?
A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
C) construct validity
D) content validity
48) As an HR manager, why would you most likely NOT use predictive validity to validate a
selection test?
A) lack of technical soundness
B) stressful for job applicants
C) associated time and cost
D) poor motivation test
49) A test validation method whereby a person performs certain tasks that are actually required
by the job is referred to as ________.
A) concurrent validity
B) content validity
C) construct validity
D) predictive validity
50) Kyla is applying for a job at a telecommunications company as a terminal operator, which
primarily involves word processing tasks. Kyla has been asked to take a word processing test, so
the firm is most likely using ________ in the selection process.
A) construct validity
B) content validity
C) concurrent validity
D) predictive validity