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1. States retaining indeterminate sentences allow mandatory release by the parole board within the boundaries set by the
sentence and the penal law.
a.
True
b.
False
2. Only state governments and federal governments, not local governments, implement parole.
a.
True
b.
False
3. A key figure in developing parole in the 1800s was Sir Walter Crofton, who administered British penal colonies in
Tasmania and elsewhere in the South Pacific and later in England.
a.
True
b.
False
4. Only felons are released on parole, not those convicted of misdemeanors.
a.
True
b.
False
5. Historically, few changes have been made in the way offenders are released from prison.
a.
True
b.
False
6. Critics state that eliminating discretionary parole has had a major effect on lowering the national crime rate.
a.
True
b.
False
7. One important effect of discretionary release is that the parole board can shorten a sentence imposed by a judge.
a.
True
b.
False
8. Currently, thirty US states have some form of prerelease program designed to prepare inmates for reentry.
a.
True
b.
False
9. The US Supreme Court requires a two-stage parole-revocation proceeding.
a.
True
b.
False
10. In reentry courts judges maintain active oversight of parolees they had originally sentenced.
a.
True
b.
False
11. Prior criminal record is not a criterion parole boards consider.
a.
True
b.
False
12. A risk assessment may be used to determine if an inmate is ready for release.
a.
True
b.
False
13. Parole officers do not help offenders readjust to the community.
a.
True
b.
False
14. Reentry courts supervise ex-offenders' return to the community and their adjustment to life after incarceration.
a.
True
b.
False
15. Parole is the continuation of correctional supervision in the community.
a.
True
b.
False
16. Which of the following is NOT one of the three concepts that comprise the foundation of parole?
a.
custody
b.
personal right
c.
contract of consent
d.
grace or privilege
17. Today slightly more than ________ percent of adult offenders are released on parole and remain under correctional
supervision for a specific period of time.
a.
27
b.
37
c.
57
d.
77
18. Parolees are aware that they must meet critical needs to make it in the community. Which of the following is NOT
considered to be one of those critical needs?
a.
Get a job.
b.
Get substance abuse under control.
c.
Develop a support group.
d.
Enroll in college classes.
19. There are five basic mechanisms for release from prison. Which of the following is NOT one of these mechanisms?
a.
expiration release
b.
discretionary release
c.
unconditional release
d.
mandatory release
20. Parole in the United States evolved during the _________century following the English, Australian, and Irish practices
of conditional pardon, apprenticeship by indenture, transportation, and the issuance of tickets of leave.
a.
seventeenth
b.
eighteenth
c.
nineteenth
d.
twentieth
21. Which state currently leads the nation in parole revocations, with a staggering two-thirds of all parolees returning to
prison within three years?
a.
New York
b.
Texas
c.
California
d.
Florida
22. According to your authors, home confinement falls into the category of ____________ release.
a.
discretionary
b.
other conditional
c.
expiration
d.
supplementary
23. Inmates who are released on ___________ release no longer require further correctional supervision and cannot be
returned to prison for their current offense.
a.
unconditional
b.
discretionary
c.
expiration
d.
mandatory
24. An inmate's eligibility for release to community supervision depends on requirements set forth by the law and
_____________.
a.
correctional administration for that jurisdiction
b.
sentences imposed by the court
c.
correctional policies and procedure
d.
parole boards
25. Based on the assumptions of indeterminate sentences and rehabilitative programs, this type of release is designed to
allow the parole board to release inmates to conditional supervision in the community when they are deemed ready to live
as law-abiding citizens.
a.
discretionary
b.
conditional
c.
mandatory
d.
expiration
26. Which of the following men was NOT one of the early pioneers of parole?
a.
Sir Walter Crofton
b.
Jeremy Bentham
c.
Alexander Maconochie
d.
Zebulon Brockway
27. For most of the twentieth century, the term ____________ has referred to both a method of community supervision
and a release mechanism.
a.
reintegration
b.
reentry
c.
parole
d.
probation
28. ______________release occurs when the sentencing judge requires a period of post-custody supervision in the
community.
a.
Unconditional
b.
Discretionary
c.
Probation
d.
Mandatory
29. When discretionary release is used, the parole board's power is much like that of the ________.
a.
jury
b.
probation officer
c.
prosecutor
d.
sentencing judge
30. Eligibility for an appearance before the parole board is a function of all the following items except
a.
an inmate’s conduct before prison.
b.
demographic data.
c.
statutory criteria.
d.
the individual sentence.
31. Parole officers are usually asked to play two roles: ________and_________.
a.
cop; social worker
b.
social worker; mentor
c.
mentor; cop
d.
cop; teacher
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the major release criteria considered for a potential parolee?
a.
prior criminal record
b.
history of community adjustment
c.
adequacy of parole plan
d.
credit and driving records
33. In theory, parole boards evaluate an offender’s progress toward ___________and readiness to abide by laws.
a.
restoration
b.
reintegration
c.
rehabilitation
d.
reentry
34. A major criticism of discretionary release is that it has shifted responsibility for many primary criminal justice
decisions from a _________ to a___________.
a.
prosecutor; parole board
b.
prosecutor; judge
c.
judge; parole board
d.
parole board; judge
35. Which of the following is NOT one of the possible harsh realities that a newly released prisoner may face once
paroled?
a.
barriers to success
b.
the strangeness of reentry
c.
unmet personal needs
d.
missing the physical safety of prison
36. Nationally, 35 percent of all new prison admissions are violators of conditional release; of this group, nearly
_________ are returned to prison for technical violations.
a.
one-fifth
b.
one-third
c.
one-half
d.
two-thirds
37. Which of the following is NOT one of the options frequently applied by parole agencies when parolees violate the
conditions of their release?
a.
Note the violation and increase supervision instead of revocation of parole.
b.
Seek advice from the sentencing judge, but have no formal revocation hearing.
c.
Note the violation but take no official action.
d.
Return the parolee to prison.
38. Most incidents or actions described as technical violations that result in violation of probation, can be categorized
as______________.
a.
non-criminal infractions
b.
minor felonies
c.
criminal misdemeanors
d.
major felonies
39. Restrictions that parolees must legally obey after being released are referred to as ________.
a.
exiting guidelines
b.
conditions of release
c.
parole regulations
d.
post-release policy
40. The effectiveness of corrections is usually measured by _____________.
a.
crime rates
b.
rates of recidivism
c.
probation rates
d.
uniform crime rates
41. Inmates who have maxed out are released
a.
unconditionally
b.
with conditions
c.
to a local jail
d.
only if they completed treatment
42. Which is not a criterion that guides release decisions?
a.
age and gender
b.
insight into causes of past criminal conduct
c.
history of community adjustment
d.
physical, mental and emotional health
43. The Second Chance Act of 2007 is designed to assist offenders with
a.
successful reentry into the community.
b.
chemical health programming while in prison.
c.
have their case dismissed.
d.
DNA collection.
44. Revocation seldom results from a single rules violation because
a.
prisons are far too crowded
b.
there is not enough evidence to find them in violation
c.
parole officers don't care to violate
d.
they only violate offenders who committed person related offenses
45. Qualification for parole officers vary by state, but what is usually not a requirement?
a.
bachelor's degree
b.
no past felony conviction
c.
law enforcement experience
d.
law degree
Austin and Abby were incarcerated for ten years for a crime they committed at the age of eighteen. At the age of fifty, the
conviction was removed from Austin's record per court order. The governor also excused Abby's offense.
46. How was the conviction removed from Austin's record?
a.
expungement
b.
expiration
c.
decay
d.
dissolvement
47. What was granted, excusing Abby from her offense?
a.
pardon
b.
parole
c.
probation
d.
pass
Anna is eligible for release from prison after serving two-thirds of her sentence. A parole board grants her release but she
will remain on supervision until her sentence expires. She must adhere to specific conditions while in the community. It
was determined she will require close supervision while in the community. Two weeks after release, Anna commits a
new offense and is returned to prison. Six months later she is again released to the community after appearing before the
48. What type of release was Anna granted?
a.
discretionary release
b.
expiration release
c.
reinstatement release
d.
required release
49. What type of supervision was Anna on while in the community?
a.
parole
b.
probation
c.
pretrial
d.
pardon
50. What was completed to determine how Anna will be supervised in the community?
a.
risk assessment
b.
research plan
c.
development plan
d.
supervision study
51. Why was Anna returned to prison?
a.
She violated her release by committing a new offense.
b.
She needed a place to stay.
c.
Her parole officer didn't like her.
d.
The parole board changed their minds.
52. After Anna returned to prison, she was again released. What type of release was this?
a.
reinstatement release
b.
returned release
c.
lucky release
d.
second-chance release
David has been in prison for seven years. This is the maximum sentence imposed by the court at sentencing. David will
be released in three days when is entire sentence is served.
53. What type of release mechanism was David released on?
a.
expiration release
b.
end of confinement release
c.
discretionary release
d.
probation release
54. Which of the following statements is true regarding David's release?
a.
He will be released unconditionally.
b.
He will be released on parole.
c.
He will be released on probation.
d.
He will be released on pretrial status.
55. What is true about David's incarceration?
a.
He maxed out.
b.
He opted out.
c.
He escaped.
d.
He was granted a pardon.
56. _________ is the period of correctional supervision following release from prison.
57. A(n) ____________ is an official action of the executive branch of the state or federal government excusing an
offense and absolving the offender from the consequences of the crime.
58. _____________ occurs when offenders are returned to parole after serving a time in prison because of a parole
violation.
59. When release is _________, the parole board’s power is much like that of the sentencing judge.
60. In response to criticism that the release decisions of parole boards are somewhat arbitrary, many states have adopted
_________________.
61. The _______________ Act of 2007 is a federal law that was enacted to ensure the successful return of prisoners to the
community.
62. When people fail on parole their parole is ____________, and they are returned to prison to continue serving their
sentences.
63. ___________ is a legal process that results in the removal of a conviction from official records.
64. It is estimated that parole officers spend as much as _______percent of their time in nonsupervisory work.
65. Parole can be revoked for two reasons: 1) ________________ and 2) a violation of conditions of parole.
66. Only ____________ are released on parole.
67. There are __________ basic mechanisms for release from prison.
68. The release of an inmate from incarceration to probation is known as ___________ release.
69. A _____________ assessment is used to help determine if an inmate is ready for release.
70. Parole officers monitor offenders’ ______________ to ensure that parole requirements are met.
71. ______________ for parole officers vary by state.
72. For those on parole _____________________ is now an unfamiliar environment.
73. Parolees are aware that they must meet critical ___________ to make it on the streets.
74. _______________ have upheld bans on employment when the work has a connection to the criminal conduct of the
offender.
75. Expungement is a legal process that results in the _______________ of a conviction from official records.
76. List and describe the five basic mechanisms by which inmates are released from prison. Describe the strengths and
weaknesses of each mechanism. What is the impact of each mechanism on prisoners, the prison culture, and the prison
staff?
77. Define the term parole. What is its intended purpose? Briefly chronicle the development of the American practice of
parole. Be sure to include the explanation of its historical roots in Europe, including those responsible for its inception,
how and where it was first instituted in the United States, and during what time period.
78. What is a civil disability? Name at least three civil disabilities prisoners face upon release. How does each of these
disabilities influence the possible success of a released prisoner?
79. List and explain the four most important adjustment supports necessary for a prisoner’s reentry into society. Be sure to
explain how these adjustments may lead to a more successful reentry. What does the corrections system do to facilitate
these supports?
80. The text sites eight criteria used to make parole decisions. List four of these and explain why each is considered when
determining if an offender is ready for release.
