Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 49 Nervous Systems
1) An organism that lacks integration centers _____.
A) cannot receive stimuli
B) will not have a nervous system
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons
2) In the human knee-jerk reflex of a seated individual, as the calf is raised from a vertical
position to a horizontal position, the muscles of the quadriceps (on the front of the thighs) and
the muscles of the hamstring (on the back side of the thighs) are _____.
A) both excited and contracting
B) both inhibited and relaxed
C) excited and inhibited, respectively
D) inhibited and excited, respectively
3) The stretch sensors of the sensory neurons in the human knee-jerk reflex are located in the
_____.
A) cartilage of the knee
B) quadriceps muscles on the front side of the thighs
C) hamstring muscles on the back side of the thighs
D) brain, the sensorimotor relay
4) Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
A) astrocytes — metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B) oligodendrocytes — produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral
nervous system
C) radial glia — the source of immunoprotection against pathogens
D) Schwann cells — provide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons
5) The cerebrospinal fluid is _____.
A) a filtrate of the blood
B) a secretion of glial cells
C) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells
D) secreted by the hypothalamus
6) The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact _____.
A) spinal cord
B) corpus callosum
C) cerebellum
D) medulla
7) Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in the _____.
A) gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord
B) white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord
C) gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord
D) white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord
8) Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as which of the following?
I) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain
II) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain
III) functioning to cushion the brain
IV) filling spaces between glial cells and neurons in the gray matter
A) only I and III
B) only II and IV
C) only I, II, and III
D) only II, III, and IV
9) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are _____.
A) motor and sensory systems
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
C) presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes
D) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
10) Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the _____ nervous system
A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) central
D) parasympathetic
11) Exercise and emergency reactions include _____.
A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system
B) increased activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic divisions
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic, and increased activity in the parasympathetic divisions
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system
12) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to _____.
A) decreased heart rate
B) increased secretion by the pancreas
C) increased contractions of the stomach
D) relaxation of the airways in the lungs
13) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated
with _____.
A) resting and digesting
B) release of epinephrine into the blood
C) increased metabolic rate
D) intensive aerobic exercise
14) In a cephalized invertebrate, the system that transmits “efferent” impulses from the anterior
ganglion to distal segments is the _____.
A) central nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system
15) Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state
with _____.
A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems
B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the
parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems
D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in the
parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems
16) If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack of response occurs, what
are potential regions where pathology might exist?
I) the brain
II) the knee
III) the spinal cord
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) only II and III
17) Upon witnessing a robber hold up a convenience store at gunpoint, which of the following
reactions would your nervous system initiate?
A) increased heartbeat
B) constriction of airways
C) constriction of pupils
D) decreased heartbeat
18) After eating a large meal, which nerves are most active in your digestive system?
I) parasympathetic nerves
II) somatic (motor) nerves
III) sympathetic nerves
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) only II and III
19) The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have _____.
A) a complete gut
B) bilateral symmetry
C) radial symmetry
D) a closed circulatory system
20) Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is
apparent in _____.
A) cnidarians
B) Planaria
C) sea stars
D) invertebrate animals with radial symmetry
21) Which of the following structures or regions is correctly paired with its function?
A) limbic system — motor control of speech
B) medulla oblongata — emotional memory
C) cerebellum — homeostatic control
D) corpus callosum — communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
22) Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased
activity in the _____.
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) spinal cord
23) Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior reside in
the _____.
A) pituitary gland
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebrum
D) thalamus
24) Biological rhythms in animals isolated from light and dark cues _____.
A) continue to have cycles of exactly twenty-four hours’ duration
B) continue to have cycles of approximately twenty-four hours duration; some more rapid, some
slower
C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them
D) cease having any rhythms
25) Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean because _____.
A) they sleep for only thirty minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval they can cease
breathing
B) they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water
while they sleep
C) they move to shallow water to sleep, so they do not need to swim to keep their blowholes
above the surface of the water
D) they alternate which half of their brain is asleep and which half is awake
26) The limbic system in the central nervous system sustains many vegetative functions in
mammals and is closely associated with structures that process cues about _____.
A) olfaction
B) vision
C) audition
D) mechanosensation
27) Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the _____.
A) medulla oblongata
B) thalamus
C) pituitary
D) cerebellum
28) The unconscious control of respiration and circulation are associated with the _____.
A) thalamus
B) cerebellum
C) medulla oblongata
D) cerebrum
29) Which of the following structures are correctly paired?
A) forebrain — cerebellum
B) midbrain — cerebrum
C) hindbrain — cerebellum
D) brainstem — anterior pituitary gland
30) Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the _____.
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
31) The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the _____.
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) medulla oblongata
32) The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the _____.
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
33) The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the _____.
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) medulla oblongata
34) Food and water appetites are under the regulatory influence of the _____.
A) cerebrum
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla oblongata
35) The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the _____.
A) hypothalamus
B) epithalamus
C) amygdala
D) Broca’s area
36) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the _____.
A) basal nuclei
B) cerebral cortex
C) brainstem
D) limbic system
37) If a patient has an injury in the brain stem, which of the following would be observed?
A) auditory hallucinations
B) visual hallucinations
C) an inability to regulate body temperature
D) an inability to regulate heart function
38) The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal _____.
A) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon
B) develops from the midbrain
C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates
D) gives rise to the cerebrum
39) The motor cortex is part of the _____.
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) spinal cord
D) medulla oblongata
40) In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted
neocortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have _____.
A) a more advanced cerebellum
B) a cerebellum with several flat layers
C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei
D) microvilli to increase the brain’s surface area
41) Wernicke’s and Broca’s regions of the brain affect _____.
A) olfaction
B) vision
C) speech
D) hearing
42) Which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its primary
functions?
A) frontal lobe — decision making
B) occipital lobe — control of skeletal muscles
C) temporal lobe — visual processing
D) occipital lobe — speech production
43) If you were writing an essay, the part(s) of your brain that would be actively involved in this
task is/are the _____.
A) frontal lobes
B) parietal lobe
C) Broca’s area
D) occipital lobe
44) Wernicke’s area _____.
A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended
B) is active during the generation of speech
C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation
D) is found on the left side of the brain
45) When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, or when someone had a
frontal lobotomy, they would _____.
A) lose their sense of balance
B) lose all short-term memory
C) have greatly altered emotional responses
D) have greatly increased long-term memory
46) Patients with damage to Wernicke’s area have difficulty _____.
A) generating speech
B) recognizing faces
C) understanding language
D) experiencing emotion
47) After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him, but pays attention
only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty
judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke?
A) the left frontal lobe
B) the right frontal lobe
C) the left parietal lobe
D) the right parietal lobe
48) An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the _____.
A) primary visual cortex
B) thalamus
C) sense of taste
D) sense of touch
49) Short-term and long-term memory are related but have important differences. Short-term
memory _____.
A) involves temporary links formed in the cerebral cortex while long-term memory involves
permanent connections within the hippocampus
B) and long-term memory store information in the cerebellum but use different neurotransmitters
C) is essential for acquiring and retaining long-term memories
D) is essential for acquiring new long-term memories but not for maintaining them
50) One of the fundamental processes by which memories are stored and learning takes place
_____.
A) is related to changes in the degree of myelination of axons
B) results in an increase in the diameter of axons
C) results in a shift from aerobic to anaerobic respiration in neurons
D) involves two types of glutamate receptors
51) The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the _____.
A) axon hillock
B) dendrite
C) synapse
D) glia
52) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the _____.
A) brainstem
B) medulla
C) hypothalamus
D) hippocampus
53) Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the _____.
A) thalamus
B) cerebral cortex
C) somatosensory cortex
D) primary motor cortex
54) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by _____.
A) the dendritic membrane
B) the presynaptic membrane
C) axon hillocks
D) cell bodies
55) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by _____.
A) the postsynaptic membrane
B) the presynaptic membrane
C) axon hillocks
D) cell bodies
56) Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries involving the
_____.
A) degree of convolutions in the brain’s surface
B) sequence of developmental specialization
C) chemicals involved in brain communications
D) nature of the blood-brain barrier
57) Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that _____.
A) schizophrenia typically involves hallucinations
B) schizophrenia typically involves manic and depressive states
C) bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment
D) bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines
58) One of the complications of Alzheimer’s disease is an interference with learning and
memory. This disease would most likely involve _____.
A) changes in the concentration of ions in the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons
B) changes in myelination of axons
C) molecular and structural changes at synapses
D) structural changes to ion channels in axons
59) Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson’s disease. Researchers are
hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease by _____.
A) preventing temporal lobe seizures
B) repairing sites of traumatic brain injury
C) replenishing missing ion channels
D) secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine
60) The brain reward system _____.
A) represents an emergent brain property that has arisen independent of natural selection
B) is a reflex of the peripheral nervous primarily under autonomic control
C) is housed in the thalamus and primarily regulates the enteric division of the autonomic
nervous system
D) utilizes the neurotransmitter dopamine and is affected by drug addiction
61) C.elegans is a model organism and was the first eukaryotic organism to have its genome
sequenced. The free-living nematode is often used in laboratories investigating nervous system
development with all 302 of its neurons and their effectors categorized. Interesting control
mechanisms have been investigated with reproduction, particularly with egg-laying in the
nematode. There are 16 muscles, 2 types of neurons, and multiple receptors involved in the
process of laying eggs in C.elegans, and there are mutations in all of those structures for the
study of the process. One particular mutation that prevents the laying of eggs by the worm is
rescued by the neurotransmitter, serotonin. That rescue suggests that the mutation is most likely
in which of the following?
A) a post-synaptic neuron involved in egg-laying
B) a pre-synaptic neuron involved in egg-laying
C) a receptor for serotonin on cells needed for egg-laying
D) one of the muscles needed for egg-laying