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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 41 Animal Nutrition
1) The following table shows the contents of a multivitamin supplement and its percentage of
recommended daily values (%DV).
Dietary Supplement
% DV
Vitamin A
70
Vitamin C
100
Vitamin D
100
Vitamin E
150
Vitamin K
13
Vitamin B1
100
Vitamin B2
100
Folic acid
100
Vitamin B12
41.7
Calcium
20
Phosphorus
5
Iodine
100
Magnesium
25
Zinc
100
Copper
100
Chromium
125
Molybdenum
100
Iron
0
The most likely reason that some of the vitamins and minerals in this supplement are found at
less than 100% is that _____.
A) it would be chemically impossible to add more
B) these vitamins and minerals are too large in size to reach 100%
C) it is too easy to overdose on minerals such as phosphorus and calcium
D) it is dangerous to overdose on fat-soluble vitamins such as A and K
2) In a well-fed human eating a Western diet, the richest source of stored chemical energy in the
body is _____.
A) fat in adipose tissue
B) glucose in the blood
C) protein in muscle cells
D) glycogen in muscle cells
3) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit of storing
chemical energy as _____.
A) proteins
B) minerals
C) carbohydrates
D) fats
4) Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because _____.
A) only those animals use those nutrients
B) these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients
C) the nutrients are necessary coenzymes
D) only certain foods contain them
5) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?
A) blood clotting — vitamin C
B) normal vision — vitamin A
C) synthesis of cell membranes — vitamin D
D) production of white blood cells — vitamin K
6) Folic acid supplements have become especially important for pregnant women because _____.
A) folic acid supplies vitamins that only pregnant women can use
B) the fetus makes high levels of folic acid
C) folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube abnormalities in a fetus
D) folic acid deprivation is a cause of heart abnormalities in a newborn
7) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in the diet?
A) They are most commonly used to meet energy demands of cells.
B) Proteins serve a variety of functions, and the body does not store excess quantities of protein.
C) They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.
D) Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
8) Three groups of cyclists consumed three different types of diets: high-carbohydrate; a diet
mixed in carbohydrates, fat, and protein; or a diet higher in protein and fat. The average time
each group could spend cycling over a six-hour period is shown in the above graph. What
conclusion from the data would help an athlete or trainer improve performance?
A) Endurance is entirely related to diet.
B) Maintaining elevated blood sugar improves performance.
C) An early 50 percent drop in blood glucose is associated with improved endurance.
D) Diet is not at all related to endurance.
9) Which of the following animals is correctly paired with its feeding mechanism?
A) baleen whale — fluid feeder
B) aphid — suspension feeder
C) clam — substrate feeder
D) snake — bulk feeder
10) The process of obtaining food is known as _____ and requires specialized mouthparts.
A) ingestion
B) digestion
C) absorption
D) excretion
11) In marine sponges, intracellular digestion of peptides is usually immediately preceded by
_____.
A) hydrolysis
B) phagocytosis
C) absorption
D) secretion
12) An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the
complete system _____.
A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion
B) allows for specialized regions with specialized functions
C) allows extensive branching
D) facilitates intracellular digestion
13) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, animals
need to have mechanisms for _____.
A) dehydration synthesis
B) enzymatic hydrolysis
C) regurgitation
D) demineralization
14) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids;
both digestive processes _____.
A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme
B) use water molecules when breaking bonds (hydrolysis)
C) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH
D) require adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source
15) Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body. This process
is known as _____.
A) ingestion
B) digestion
C) hydrolysis
D) absorption
16) The function of mechanical digestion is to break down large chunks of food into smaller
pieces. Why is this important? Smaller pieces of food _____.
A) do not taste as good as larger pieces of food
B) have more surface area for chemical digestion than do larger pieces of food
C) are easier to excrete than are larger pieces of food
D) are more easily stored in the stomach than are larger pieces of food
17) The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates _____.
A) secretion
B) absorption
C) filtration
D) temperature regulation
18) In the digestive system, peristalsis is _____.
A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine
B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation
C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel
D) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus
19) Among mammals, it is generally true that _____.
A) all types of foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth
B) after leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx
C) the epiglottis prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea
D) the trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach
20) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The agents that help emulsify
fats are produced in location _____.
A) 1
B) 3
C) 8
D) 9
21) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The highest rate of nutrient
absorption occurs at location_____.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 8
22) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. Most of the digestion of fats
occurs in structure(s) _____.
A) 3 only
B) 4 only
C) 1 and 4
D) 3 and 4
23) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. Bacteria that produce vitamins
are found in the greatest concentration in location _____.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 8
24) The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the _____.
A) stomach
B) pharynx
C) rectum
D) epiglottis
25) Which of the following organs is correctly paired with its function?
A) stomach — protein digestion
B) large intestine — bile production
C) small intestine — starch digestion
D) pancreas — starch digestion
26) Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting activities in
the stomach by having _____.
A) a sufficient colony of H. pylori
B) a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells
C) a high level of secretion of enzymes by chief cells
D) a cell wall impermeable to acid
27) Villi and microvilli in the small intestine _____.
A) neutralize stomach acid
B) activate trypsinogen
C) increase the surface area to increase the efficiency of nutrient absorption
D) emulsify lipid molecules
28) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells _____.
A) initiate the chemical digestion of protein in the stomach
B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach
C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach
D) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine
29) Historically inaccurate diagnosis of acid reflux disorders and gastric ulcers has been
improved by _____.
A) pH monitoring
B) X-ray technology
C) screening for H. pylori infections
D) sonography
30) What is the importance of the mucins that are released by salivary glands?
A) They aid in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides.
B) They are beginning the process of starch digestion.
C) They are hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the stomach in
anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth.
D) They are glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through the esophagus.
31) Jahasz-Pocsine and co-workers found a correlation between gastric bypass surgery and
neurological complications. Surgeons performed gastric bypass surgery on 150 patients at the
University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences Neurology Clinic. Of the 150 patients, 26
experienced neurological complications related to the surgery. What is the most likely cause for
the neurological complications?
A) sudden weight loss and caloric deficiency interfering with neurological function
B) nutrient (for example, vitamin and mineral) deficiencies
C) sloppy surgical technique of physicians performing the bypass surgery
D) infections following surgical intervention
32) Why did scientists originally hypothesize that proteolytic enzymes such as pepsin and trypsin
are secreted in inactive form?
A) These proteolytic enzymes, in active form, would digest the very tissues that synthesize them.
B) They identified the hormone that activates pepsin and trypsin.
C) The stomach is too acidic to maintain these enzymes in their active form.
D) Pepsin and trypsin have never been isolated in their fully activated form.
33) Over-the-counter medications for acid reflux or heartburn block the production of stomach
acid. Which of the following cells are directly affected by this medication?
A) goblet cells
B) chief cells
C) parietal cells
D) smooth muscle cells
34) Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and digestive disturbances.
How might they survive the acid pH of the stomach?
A) They secrete buffers to neutralize acid.
B) They burrow under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium.
C) They take over the parietal cells.
D) They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach.
35) The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by attaching
to enzymes that digest fat. Which of the following are potential targets of orlistat?
A) salivary amylase
B) pepsidase
C) pancreatic lipase
D) secretin
36) The pancreas is involved in the digestion of _____.
I) protein
II) fat
III) nucleic acids
IV) carbohydrates
A) I and III
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) I, II, III, and IV
37) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the _____.
A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) pancreas
D) liver
38) The bile salts _____.
A) are enzymes
B) are manufactured by the pancreas
C) emulsify fats in the duodenum
D) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice
39) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that _____.
A) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the
small intestine
B) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not
C) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the
blood
D) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption
40) Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that _____.
A) promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine
B) speeds up movement of material in the large intestine
C) decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine
D) stimulates peristalsis
41) A significant contribution of intestinal bacteria to human nutrition is the benefit of bacterial
_____.
A) production of vitamins A and C
B) absorption of organic materials
C) production of vitamin K
D) recovery of water from fecal matter
42) After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially careful to
restrict dietary intake of _____.
A) protein
B) sugar
C) fat
D) water
43) When a woman has her gallbladder removed, she should probably reduce her consumption of
_____.
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) fats
D) proteins and carbohydrates
44) If you place a small piece of a cracker on your tongue, what would you expect to happen?
A) The vitamins in the cracker are immediately absorbed.
B) Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.
C) The proteins in the cracker begin to be digested.
D) The flavor becomes less noticeable because the sugars are digested.
45) A relatively long cecum is characteristic of animals that are_____.
A) carnivores
B) herbivores
C) autotrophs
D) omnivores
46) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because cattle
_____.
A) are autotrophic
B) re-ingest their feces
C) manufacture all fifteen amino acids out of sugars in the liver
D) have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs
47) A zoologist analyzes the jawbones of an extinct mammal and concludes that it was an
herbivore. The zoologist most likely came to this conclusion based upon _____.
A) the position of muscle attachment sites
B) the shape of the teeth
C) the size of the mouth opening
D) the angle of the teeth in the mouth
48) An enlarged cecum is typical of _____.
A) rabbits, horses, and herbivorous bears
B) carnivorous animals
C) tubeworms that digest via symbionts
D) humans and other primates
49) Coprophagy is important for the nutritional balance of _____.
A) ruminants such as cows
B) insects and arthropods
C) rabbits and their relatives
D) squirrels and some rodents
50) If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and scissor-like, what
type of food would you expect this animal to eat?
A) grass
B) flesh of another animal
C) nectar
D) blood
51) You are most likely to observe coprophagy in _____.
A) carnivores
B) herbivores
C) fluid feeders
D) suspension feeders
52) Obesity in humans is most clearly linked to _____.
A) type 1 diabetes and prostate cancer
B) type 2 diabetes and muscle hypertrophy
C) type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease
D) type 2 diabetes and decreased appetite
53) If you were to jog one kilometer a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you
probably tap?
A) muscle proteins
B) liver glycogen and muscle glycogen
C) fat stored in adipose tissue
D) blood proteins
54) Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment. When the food is
released from the stomach into the small intestine, why is the environment no longer acidic?
A) Secretin increases the flow of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into the small intestine to
neutralize the stomach acid.
B) Enterokinase activates trypsinogen, thus neutralizing the stomach acid.
C) Bile salts from the gallbladder neutralize the stomach acid.
D) When pepsinogen activates pepsin, one result is the neutralization of stomach acid in the
stomach.
55) The Pimas are a group of people living in the southwestern United States and Mexico.
Although Pima Indians living in the United States and Mexico have a similar genetic
background, a five-fold increase in the incidence of type II diabetes mellitus among U.S. Pima
has been reported. The body mass index of Mexicans of non-Pima descent, Mexicans of Pima
descent, and Pimas living in the United States is shown in the figure above. Based on this
information and the graph above, what can you infer about the incidence of type II diabetes
mellitus?
A) Obesity is a risk factor for development of type II diabetes mellitus.
B) If you maintain a normal body weight (body mass index less than 25), you will not get type II
diabetes mellitus.
C) The incidence of type II diabetes mellitus has increased in the past ten years.
D) People who develop type II diabetes mellitus are typically diagnosed in childhood or
adolescence.
56) In a healthy person, after a large meal, the production of _____ will increase. After fasting,
the production of _____ will increase.
A) trypsin; trypsinogen
B) glucagon; glucose
C) glucagon; pepsinogen
D) insulin; glucagon
57) If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family, how might you
minimize your risk of developing the disorder?
A) monitor your blood glucose levels daily
B) take oral insulin daily
C) maintain a healthy weight, eat a balanced direct, and exercise
D) eat complex carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets
58) When the digestion and absorption of organic carbohydrates results in more energy-rich
molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is _____.
A) eliminated in the feces
B) stored as starch in the liver
C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles
D) oxidized and converted to ATP
59) A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet draws on its stored
resources in which order?
A) fat, then glycogen, then protein
B) glycogen, then protein, then fat
C) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat
D) muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen
