FISH technology can employ only a single phylogenetic probe.
Thermoplasma grows either aerobically or anaerobically by sulfur respiration.
The domains of life arose as barriers between gene exchange evolved between
organisms.
Two organisms containing identical GC ratios are not necessarily related.
Antibodies are soluble proteins produced by T cells.
Gram stain smears of urethral exudates for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are
highly specific.
Chemotaxis is a sensory response affecting the rotational direction of the flagellar
motor.
The goal of environmental genomics is to detect as many genes as possible and then, if
possible, to determine to the phylogeny of the organisms to which the genes belong.
Superantigens activate more T cells than a normal immune response.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA but use the ribosomes of the host
cell.
In both lag and stationary phase, there is no net increase or decrease in viable cells.
One problem with the EIA test is the disposal of radioactive wastes.
T cells undergo immune selection FOR potential antigen-reactive cells and selection
AGAINST those cells that react strongly with self-antigens.
DNA-binding proteins typically affect translation of a protein.
Some microbes can grow in boiling water.
There are several different virus-specific treatments and vaccines available to treat or
prevent hantavirus infections.
The Baltimore classification scheme is a useful way to categorize viruses based on their
host infectivity.
In nature, the predominant form of DNA is supercoiled in a negative direction.
Chlorine is consumed when it reacts with organic materials.
Lyme disease is limited almost exclusively to the northeastern United States.
Free-energy calculations are dependent on the rates of the reactions.
In electron transport systems, the electron carriers are membrane associated.
Counting chambers are used for estimating the number of cells present in a liquid
culture.
Phototrophic organisms in SIP experiments are often observed releasing 14CO2 as
measuring activity.
Many food infection agents also cause waterborne diseases.
In general, the cold-dwelling thaumarchaeotes are evolving more slowly than the
hyperthermophilic crenarchaeotes.
Deer flies (Chrysops spp.) are a major vector in the spread of typhus.
Erythema migrans is associated with typhus.
Today, the enrichment culture technique developed over a century ago by Martinus
Beijerinck remains a feasible approach to discovering bacteria capable of degrading
pollutants.
Certain Clostridium spp. can be found in the human gut, but Clostridium tetani is
almost exclusively present in soil.
When carbon is limiting in a system, sulfate reducers often predominate the system
when sufficient sulfate ions are present for reduction.
The endosymbiosis that formed mitochondria likely occurred after eukaryotes
developed photosynthetic capabilities.
The MPN technique is rarely applied in the food industry because any microbial
presence in food is unsafe.
Short regions at the beginning and end of gene sequences are not translated into
proteins.
The promoters of positively controlled operons require activator proteins, because
A) RNA polymerase easily recognizes the consensus sequence.
B) they are required to inactivate the repressor proteins.
C) the promoters have nucleotide sequences that bind RNA polymerase weakly, which
are not close matches to the consensus sequence.
D) they are needed to bind to the allosteric site of RNA polymerase.
An attenuated strain of a pathogen
A) has lost its virulence, but may be used to create a vaccine.
B) has changed its antigens to avoid an adaptive immune response.
C) is more virulent than the regular strains and may cause septic shock.
D) is an extracellular pathogen that will be cleared by innate immunity.
What reaction is catalyzed by mercuric reductase?
A) CH3HgCH3 to Hg2+
B) CH3Hg+ to Hg2+
C) Hg4+ to Hg2+
D) Hg2+ to Hg0
What chemical initiates the formation of acid mine drainage when pyrite is not disposed
of properly?
A) O2
B) Fe2+
C) HS–
D) SO4
2-
Which statement is TRUE regarding protein synthesis?
A) Ribosomal proteins catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide
chain.
B) The 23S rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
C) Transfer RNAs catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
D) Messenger RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
Which of the following methods may introduce foreign DNA into a recipient?
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) transformation, transduction, and conjugation
The part of the antigen recognized by the antibody or TCR is called the
A) epitope.
B) antigen-binding site.
C) antigenic complex.
D) light chain.
What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than transcripts in bacteria?
A) Eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated.
B) Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy size-selection methods.
C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.
D) Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs in eukaryotes.
A mechanism for penicillin resistance in bacteria is
A) acetylation of the antibiotic.
B) phosphorylation of the antibiotic.
C) confirmation change of the antibiotic.
D) splitting the β-lactam ring of the antibiotic.
Which taxonomic tool would scientists use if they wanted to determine if an outbreak
of food poisoning was caused by a particular strain of a pathogen?
A) fluorescence in situ hybridization
B) DNA:DNA hybridization
C) multilocus sequence typing
D) fatty acid methyl ester analysis
Which group of eukaryotes LACK alveoli?
A) apicomplexans
B) ciliates
C) dinoflagellates
D) oomycetes
Acetogens are anaerobic organisms that produce acetate as the main product of their
metabolism. They are important in
A) the production of vinegar.
B) the carbohydrate metabolism of the human gut.
C) hydrothermal vent communities.
D) the production of vitamin C.
Intrinsic properties of immunogens include
A) appropriate physical form.
B) molecular size.
C) sufficient molecular complexity.
D) appropriate physical form, molecular size, and molecular complexity.
Cellular integrity and cell wall stabilization of the Halobacterium are aided by
A) potassium ions.
B) chloride ions.
C) magnesium ions.
D) sodium ions.
The 140 kbp genome containing many short repeats, ribosomal RNA genes, one RNA
polymerase gene (rpo) and one RubisCO gene (rbcL) is most likely from a(n)
A) plant.
B) autotrophic bacterium.
C) chloroplast.
D) autotrophic archaeon.
Crenarchaeotes whose optimal growth temperature is over 80C are called
A) hyperthermophiles.
B) thermophiles.
C) extreme halophiles.
D) halophiles.
The earliest RNA probably functioned in
A) catalysis.
B) self-replication.
C) both catalysis and self-replication.
D) neither catalysis nor self-replication.
Why do obligate symbionts often contain lower G+C content when compared to
free-living organisms?
A) Ancestral symbionts had low GC content genomes by chance, and these low GC
content genomes are passed onto their progeny.
B) Free-living organisms must have a more stable genome to survive; low G+C content
organisms are often selected against in nature.
C) Replicating high G+C content genomes requires several additional enzymes, to
break apart the strong triple bonds formed from GC pairs, which are rarely found in
symbionts with relatively small genome sizes.
D) Symbionts usually do not have as many DNA repair mechanisms as free-living
organisms, and two common spontaneous mutations change GC pairs into AT pairs.
Phosphorylation of ________ regulates which direction a flagellum rotates, thus
controlling whether an organism runs or tumbles.
A) CheAW
B) CheB
C) CheY
D) CheZ
Primary endosymbioses gave rise to ________ and secondary endosymbioses gave rise
to ________.
A) chloroplasts in algae / chloroplasts in plants
B) mitochondria in eukaryotes / chloroplasts in eukaryotes
C) chloroplasts and mitochondria in plants and red and green algae / chloroplasts in
other eukaryotes
D) chloroplasts and mitochondria in green and red algae / chloroplasts and
mitochondria in diatoms
The rolled tube method is most commonly used for isolating which grouping of
microorganisms?
A) anaerobes
B) chemolithotrophs
C) chemoorganotrophs
D) aerobes
You are studying a protein in Salmonella typhimurium that you believe is a toxin.
Whenever you attempt to purify the protein from lysed cell cultures, you get two forms
of the protein. One form is smaller than the other and is missing 15 amino acids from
the N-terminus compared to the larger form. This leads you to hypothesize that
A) there are two termination sites in the mRNA.
B) the protein requires chaperonins to fold properly.
C) the protein is secreted and folds outside of the cell.
D) you need to re-do the experiment because there should only be one form.
The life-threatening condition that may develop during a type I hypersensitivity
reaction is called
A) anaphylaxis.
B) septic shock.
C) stroke.
D) toxic shock.
Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic biology?
A) assembling gene sequences together into genome and creating a living organism
from it
B) creating a new metabolic pathway that produces a previously unidentified compound
C) developing a novel polyvalent vaccine
D) making Escherichia coli phototrophic
AT-rich DNA will denature/melt
A) at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA.
B) at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA.
C) usually at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA, with some minor variations.
D) in accordance with the animal or plant from which it was taken.
Rolling circle replication of the lambda genome differs from replication of a bacterial
chromosome in that
A) bidirectional replication forks are not formed.
B) only a single strand of the genome is copied.
C) no concatamers are formed.
D) only a single strand of the genome is copied and no concatamers are formed.
What will happen to a cyanobacterium that has its photosystem II (PSII) blocked?
A) Additional electron acceptors, such as NADP+, will be required to oxidize oxygen
and overcome the lost PSII process.
B) Anoxygenic photosynthesis only using photosystem I (PSI) could occur by using
cyclic photophosphorylation and an alternative electron donor such as H2S.
C) It will die from being unable to obtain energy for photosynthesis.
D) Photons will generate excessive reactive oxygen species and the cyanobacterium
will die as a consequence.
Which of the following is a common feature of primary insect symbionts?
A) accelerated mutation rates
B) extreme genome reduction
C) high A+T / low G+C content
D) accelerated mutation rates, extreme genome reduction, and high A+T / low G+C
content
Anaerobic fermentation often provides CO2, which can be used by ________ as an
electron acceptor for energy.
A) acetogens
B) methanotrophs
C) methanogens
D) acetogens and methanogens
Which group of microorganisms would the Calvin cycle LEAST likely be found in?
A) anoxygenic Bacteria
B) chemolithotrophic Bacteria
C) cyanobacteria
D) hydrocarbon catabolizing Bacteria
Describe the disease caused by herpes simplex 1 virus (HSV-1) as well as how it is
spread. Based on the disease characteristics, is HSV-1 capable of lysogeny?
The CRISPR system is said to protect or preserve genome integrity in prokaryotic cells
by acting as a type of “immune system.” Explain how the CRISPR system works and its
limitations.
Describe two roles viruses have in the open ocean.
Why are phylogenetic studies of viruses more challenging than Bacteria? Explain how
genes are selected in viruses for phylogeny and the constraints those create.
Design an enrichment strategy for the isolation of a heterotrophic sulfate-reducer that
could help clean up the oil spill in the sediments of the Gulf of Mexico.
Why are enteric bacteria such as Escherichia coli common meat contaminants?
Differentiate between the various biosafety levels and when they are most appropriately
used.
Compare and contrast the human pathogens and non-pathogens in Clostridium. Propose
a reason for why this differentiation is challenging to assay in the laboratory (NOT on
living eukaryotic animal models).
The attine ant is entirely dependent on multiple microbial species for its source of food.
What microbial species are involved and what is their role in this multi-partner
symbiosis?
How is climate change causing the emergence of zoonotic and vector-borne in new
human populations?
Why was Escherichia coli thought to be a dominant member of the human gut
microbial community in the past? What populations ARE important in the human gut
and what evidence do we have that the specific bacteria present are important for
human health?
Describe three antiretroviral drug types that are commonly used in highly active
antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
Explain how the enteric bacteria can be differentiated by the type and proportion of
fermentation products produced by the anaerobic fermentation of glucose.
When does an infection become a disease?
Explain the pathology, diagnosis, and treatment of gastric ulcers caused by
Helicobacter pylori.
What microbial processes are involved in the bioremediation of organic pollutants such
as hydrocarbons and the bioremediation of inorganic pollutants such as uranium? What
are the end products of bioremediation for hydrocarbons and uranium?
Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).