Unlock document.
This document is partially blurred.
Unlock all pages and 1 million more documents.
Get Access
80. Freedom from criterion deficiency of performance appraisals refers to the extent to which:
a.
standards relate to the overall objectives of the organization.
b.
standards capture the entire range of an employee's responsibilities.
c.
individuals tend to maintain a certain level of performance over time.
d.
factors outside the employee's control can influence performance.
81. If the performance evaluations that salespeople receive are based solely on sales revenue to the exclusion of other
important factors, the performance management system suffers from:
a.
criterion contamination.
b.
lack of reliability.
c.
criterion deficiency.
d.
organizational politics.
82. If a performance standard is found to be stable or consistent over time, it is said to be:
a.
free from contamination.
b.
relevant.
c.
reliable.
d.
valid.
83. Reliability in performance appraisal is measured by:
a.
correlating two sets of ratings made by a single rater or by two different raters.
b.
correlating the ratings of an employee at two different points in time.
c.
linking performance standards to organizational goals.
d.
quantifiable performance standards.
84. The Supreme Court ruling states that:
a.
vague performance standards can be acceptable when clearly written.
b.
organizations should have carefully defined and measurable performance standards.
c.
while performance standards should be somewhat specific, there should be room for individual interpretation.
d.
descriptions of traits such as attitude and cooperation are acceptable performance standards.
85. In light of recent court rulings, HR managers suggest that performance evaluations should meet all of the following
legal guidelines EXCEPT:
a.
performance ratings must be job-related.
b.
employees must be provided with clear, written job standards in advance of their evaluations.
c.
performance evaluation should rarely be tied to compensation decisions.
d.
supervisors should be trained to use the evaluation form correctly.
86. In most instances, who is in the best position to perform the function of evaluating an employee's performance?
a.
The HR personnel
b.
The employee's supervisor
c.
The employee
d.
Co-workers
87. Performance-related behaviors such as leadership ability, ability to delegate, and employee supportiveness may best
be appraised by:
a.
the manager/supervisor.
b.
peers.
c.
subordinates.
d.
the management team.
88. Self-appraisals are best for:
a.
administrative purposes.
b.
developmental purposes.
c.
promotional purposes.
d.
regulatory purposes.
89. One advantage of peer evaluations is that:
a.
peers are less politically motivated than supervisors.
b.
peers may furnish more accurate and valid information than supervisors.
c.
peers may work harder to help other employees improve performance.
d.
peers are often partially responsible for the performance of other co-workers.
90. A performance rating error in which the rater is reluctant to give employees either extremely high or extremely low
ratings is referred to as a(n):
a.
recency error.
b.
error of central tendency.
c.
leniency or strictness error.
d.
halo error.
91. A performance rating error in which the rater tends to give employees either extremely high or extremely low ratings
is referred to as a(n):
a.
recency error.
b.
error of central tendency.
c.
leniency or strictness error.
d.
halo error.
92. Which method of performance appraisal requires managers to place a certain percentage of employees into various
performance categories?
a.
Forced distribution method
b.
Checklist method
c.
Percent method
d.
Forced-choice method
93. If one rates an employee's performance largely on the basis of the employee’s recent behavior, one commits a:
a.
leniency error.
b.
contrast error.
c.
recency error.
d.
central tendency error.
94. If one rates an average employee's performance high because they compared the employee to poor performers, one
commits a:
a.
leniency error.
b.
contrast error.
c.
recency error.
d.
central tendency error.
95. If one inflates the evaluation of people with whom they have something in common, one commits a:
a.
leniency error.
b.
similar-to-me error.
c.
recency error.
d.
central tendency error.
96. A feedback training program for performance appraisal raters should cover at least all of the following areas
EXCEPT:
a.
effective communication techniques.
b.
diagnosing the root causes of performance problems.
c.
setting goals and objectives.
d.
developing independent learning objectives.
97. Performance appraisal methods can be broadly classified as either ____, ____, or ____ approaches.
a.
trait, behavioral, judgmental
b.
trait, behavioral, results
c.
behavioral, judgmental, results
d.
behavioral, judgmental, attitudinal
98. In the ____ method, each trait or characteristic to be rated is represented by a scale on which a rater indicates the
degree to which an employee possesses that trait or characteristic.
a.
mixed-standard scale
b.
graphic rating scale
c.
behaviorally anchored rating scale
d.
behavior observation scale
99. Which rating format uses three specific behavioral descriptions relevant to each trait and then asks supervisors to
evaluate whether an employee's behavior is better than, equal to, or worse than the standard for each behavior?
a.
Mixed-standard scale
b.
Forced-choice method
c.
Behaviorally anchored rating scale
d.
Behavior observation scale
100. A method of rating performance in which the rater chooses from statements that appear equally favorable or equally
unfavorable is known as the:
a.
forced-distribution method.
b.
graphic rating scales.
c.
behaviorally anchored rating scale
d.
forced-choice method.
101. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the essay method?
a.
It is very time-consuming.
b.
It must follow a job-specific format.
c.
It's appraisal quality could be influenced by the supervisor's writing skills.
d.
It is highly subjective and could be biased.
102. If the primary objective of a performance appraisal is to give employees developmental feedback, which of the
following appraisal methods is most ideal?
a.
Trait
b.
Results
c.
Behavioral
d.
Attitudinal
103. What is the first step in the management by objectives (MBO) process?
a.
Develop organization goals and metrics
b.
Develop department goals and metrics
c.
Review performance
d.
Add new inputs
104. The type of scale that uses critical incidents as examples of different points along the scale is known as:
a.
the mixed-standard scale.
b.
the global rating.
c.
the behaviorally anchored rating scale.
d.
the dimensional rating.
105. One major advantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale is that:
a.
it requires a great deal of employee participation which leads to greater acceptance.
b.
the same rating scale can be used across all the departments of an organization.
c.
it takes a relatively short time to develop.
d.
the rating scale can be developed with little expertise.
106. The procedures followed to develop a behaviorally anchored rating scale typically result in scales that:
a.
have a high degree of construct validity.
b.
have a high degree of content validity.
c.
can be used to rate employees across different jobs.
d.
cost the least to develop.
107. Which of the following is a performance appraisal approach designed to measure how frequently employees exhibit
certain behaviors?
a.
Management by objectives
b.
Behaviorally anchored rating scale
c.
Behavior observation scale
d.
Trait scale
108. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Balanced Scorecard approach?
a.
Competitor
b.
Learning
c.
Customer
d.
Financial
109. If an appraisal focuses on a narrow set of results criteria to the exclusion of other important but less quantifiable
performance dimensions, the performance management system may suffer from:
a.
criterion deficiency.
b.
rater bias.
c.
lack of reliability.
d.
criterion contamination.
110. Requirements for a successful management by objectives (MBO) program include all of the following EXCEPT that:
a.
the results must be under the control of the employee.
b.
timeframes for when the goals are to be reviewed and evaluated need to be established.
c.
goal statements must be accompanied by descriptions of how they will be accomplished.
d.
both trait and critical incident objectives must be set.
111. An appraisal system that allows each individual to see clearly how his or her performance ties into the overall
performance of the firm is:
a.
the balanced scorecard approach.
b.
the 360-degree evaluation.
c.
the customer-oriented approach.
d.
management by objectives.
112. An appraisal system that takes into account financial, customer, processes, and learning categories is called:
a.
the balanced scorecard approach.
b.
the 360-degree evaluation.
c.
the customer-oriented approach.
d.
management by objectives.
113. The choice of an appraisal method should be largely based on:
a.
the preferred technique of the personnel department.
b.
the purpose of the appraisal.
c.
the reaction of employees.
d.
what skills the developer of the system possesses.
114. The appraisal interview should be divided into two sessions, one each for:
a.
positive comments and negative comments.
b.
performance review and employee's growth plans.
c.
performance review and compensation discussion.
d.
establishing performance standards and reviewing performance.
115. The appraisal interview:
a.
should take place in one session in order to give the employee a complete view of his or her performance.
b.
can be divided into two sessions, though this is not advisable.
c.
is most suitable for the supervisor to give feedback on past performance and should not be used for
developmental purposes.
d.
should be held in two segments because the rater must perform the role of both evaluator and counselor.
116. The three basic types of formats for providing feedback during a performance evaluation meeting or feedback
session are:
a.
tell-and-sell, tell-and-train, and developmental.
b.
tell-and-sell, tell-and listen, and problem-solving.
c.
tell-and-train, problem-solving, and developmental.
d.
tell-and-listen, tell-and-train, and problem-solving.
117. The appraisal interview that requires interviewers to possess the ability to persuade an employee to change his or her
behavior in a certain way is:
a.
tell-and-develop.
b.
tell-and-listen.
c.
tell-and-sell.
d.
problem-solving.
118. Which of the following type of formats gives both managers and employees an opportunity to release and iron out
any frustrating feelings they might have?
a.
Tell-and-develop
b.
Tell-and-listen
c.
Tell-and-sell
d.
Problem-solving
119. In which type of appraisal interview does the interviewer communicate the strong and weak points of an employee's
performance during the first part of the interview and then explore the employee's feelings about the appraisal in the
second part?
a.
Problem-solving
b.
Tell-and-develop
c.
Tell-and-sell
d.
Tell-and-listen
120. Listening, accepting, and responding to feelings are essential elements of the _____ performance evaluation format.
a.
tell-and-develop
b.
tell-and-listen
c.
tell-and-sell
d.
problem-solving
121. As an appraiser, one should try to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
minimizing criticism.
b.
changing the person, not the behavior.
c.
identifying the source of ineffective performance.
d.
being supportive and demonstrating that one cares.
122. As a rule of thumb, a supervisor should spend approximately ____ percent of the time talking during an appraisal
interview.
a.
10 to 15
b.
20 to 25
c.
30 to 35
d.
40 to 45
123. An inappropriate interview technique in which praise serves to cushion criticism by alternating positive statements
with negative statements is known as:
a.
the sandwich technique.
b.
the cushioning technique.
c.
the rollercoaster technique.
d.
sympathetic interviewing.
124. Tips for using criticism constructively includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
considering whether it is really necessary.
b.
not exaggerating.
c.
watching one's timing.
d.
using the “sandwich technique.”
125. It is recommended that a diagnosis of poor employee performance focus on all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
skill.
b.
personality.
c.
effort.
d.
external conditions.
126. Research suggests that when it comes to our own performance, most of us first attribute our bad performance to:
a.
inadequate training.
b.
poor motivation.
c.
external constraints.
d.
lack of ability.
127. Managers often first assume poor performance of subordinates to:
a.
inadequate training.
b.
poor motivation.
c.
external constraints.
d.
lack of ability.
128. Some organizations believe that appraisals are useful :
a.
as a warning to inexperienced employees.
b.
only for highly effective or ineffective employees.
c.
only for veteran employees.
d.
for employees nearing retirement.
129. Employees who earn performance-based pay are more _____.
a.
mobile
b.
satisfied
c.
educated
d.
cynical
130. A process whereby managers meet to discuss the performance of individual employees to ensure that their
employee evaluations are in line with one another is referred to as _____.
a.
cross-referencing
b.
authentication
c.
mentoring
d.
calibration
131. The main disadvantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is that it:
a.
requires considerable legal “vetting” by a skilled attorney.
b.
has a negative reputation among HR professionals.
c.
is useful only for manual jobs.
d.
requires considerable time and effort to develop.
132. Explain the two main purposes of performance management programs and why performance management
systems sometimes fail.
133. What are the four basic considerations for establishing performance standards?
134. Discuss the various types of rating errors that may exist in performance evaluation.
135. Discuss the requirements for a successful management by objectives (MBO) program.
136. Explain the different types of performance evaluation meetings and feedback sessions.
137. What are some important guidelines for conducting a successful performance evaluation meeting?
