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CHAPTER FOUR: NEEDS ANALYSIS
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A triggering event
A) Is a comparison of a reactive and proactive TNA.
B) Occurs when actual organizational performance is greater than
expected organizational performance.
C) Occurs when actual organizational performance is less than
expected organizational performance.
D) Usually means some employees require training.
Page Ref: 90
2. When a TNA is conducted, it
A) Guarantees that the time and money spent on training is spent
wisely.
B) Determines the benchmark for evaluation of training.
C) Provides essential information in the implementation of the
strategic plan.
D) Both B & C.
Page Ref: 90-91
3. A training needs analysis is conducted when a
A) Setback event occurs.
B) Triggering event occurs.
C) Decision to provide sexual harassment training is made.
D) Deficiency is determined to be a motivational deficiency.
Page Ref: 92
4. Which of the following focuses on an anticipated performance
problem in the future?
A) The PAQ
B) A reactive TNA
C) A proactive TNA
D) Work sampling
Page Ref: 92
5. Which of the following focuses on a current performance problem?
Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall
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A) The PAQ
B) A reactive TNA
C) A proactive TNA
D) Work sampling
Page Ref: 92
6. To deal with a KSA deficiency, an appropriate remedy suggested in the
text is
A) Training.
B) Changing the job.
C) Providing proper feedback.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
Page Ref: Figure 4-1, p. 93
7. When a performance gap is identified and there is shown to be a lack
of KSAs
A) There is no need to determine if there are motivational issues
present.
B) You still might want to determine if there are any barriers to
performance.
C) Training is the only option for dealing with the lack of KSAs.
D) A & C.
Page Ref: Figure 4-1, p. 93
8. Looking at the internal environment of an organization and
determining its fit with organizational goals and objectives is
associated with which TNA component?
A) Operational Analysis
B) Performance Discrepancy
C) Organizational Analysis
D) Person Analysis
E) Organizational Laddering
Page Ref: 96
9. _____ involves looking at all the influences that could affect employee
performance in the organization and determining their fit within
organizational goals and objectives.
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A) Performance analysis
B) Operational analysis
C) Goals analysis
D) Organizational analysis
E) Personnel analysis
Page Ref: 96
10. When a(n) _____ analysis is conducted for strategic planning, it is a
major undertaking. The _____ and relevant strategies that have been
identified in the strategic plan are an indication of where the firm
wishes to be.
A) Organizational; mission
B) Operational; organizational
C) Performance; person analysis
D) Operational; goals
Page Ref: 97
11. Organizational analysis should focus on
A) Mission and capital resources.
B) Job analysis.
C) Human resources and organizational environment.
D) Both A & C.
E) All of the above.
Page Ref: 97
12. As discussed in the text, about what percentage of training requests did
Nancy Gordon of Ameritech say turn out to be solvable without
training?
A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 85 percent
D) 99 percent
Page Ref: 97
13. In the example provided in the text where the bank manager sent his
tellers to training on the products and services the bank provided, the
training resulted in a _____ percent increase in services sold to
customers.
Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall
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A) 0
B) 25
C) 50
D) 80
Page Ref: Training in Action 4-1, p. 97
14. When an OPG is identified, a(n) _____________ should be conducted
in conjunction with an organizational analysis in order to fully
understand the nature of the gap.
A) System analysis
B) Operational analysis
C) Performance evaluation
D) Goal analysis
Page Ref: 100
15. In an organizational analysis, who do you ask about job design issues?
A) Top management
B) Relevant supervisors
C) Incumbents
D) Both B & C
E) All of the above
Page Ref: Table 4-2, p. 100
16. An outline of a typical job’s duties and responsibilities is a
A) Job description.
B) Job specification.
C) Performance standard.
D) Task outline.
E) None of the above.
Page Ref: Table 4-3, p. 101
17. The selection process of incumbents in operational analysis should be
performed by
A) A supervisor.
B) The manager of the organization.
C) A head hunter.
D) A job analyst.
Difficulty: Easy
Page Ref: 102
18. The _____ approach to job analysis immediately identifies the KSAs
required for the job.
A) Task-oriented
B) Worker-oriented
C) Operational analysis
D) Job-duty-task
Page Ref: 102
19. The _____ approach identifies the various work activities required to
successfully perform a job.
A) PAQ
B) task-oriented
C) worker-oriented
D) Both A & C
Page Ref: 102
20. Which of the following statements regarding job analysis is true?
A) In the task-oriented approach, you first identify the tasks
before determining the KSAs required.
B) KSAs are made up of multiple competencies.
C) The worker-oriented approach goes directly to determining the
KSAs, then determines the tasks so it is more effective.
D) The PAQ is more effective than the task-oriented approach.
E) Competency modeling is a more scientific approach and job
analysis is not as relevant anymore.
Page Ref: 104
21. In the example provided in the text of analyzing a job when there are
no incumbents, Dr. Fields
A) Asked the manufacturer of the new equipment to learn if there
was similar equipment in operation elsewhere so he could
interview those incumbents.
B) Interviewed engineers responsible for designing the new
equipment.
C) Obtained blueprints for the new equipment.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
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Page Ref: Table 4-6, p. 107
22. Recall the example in the text where Ford Motor Company was
building a new engine plant in Windsor that was to focus on the “team
approach” to building the engines. Which of the following statements
is true regarding that example?
A) The majority of those hired were university educated and had
experience in the team approach.
B) One of the goals of the training was to improve attitudes
toward the team approach.
C) Evaluation of the training indicated an improvement in
employees’ communication skills.
D) The promise of training related to self-fulfillment never
materialized.
Page Ref: Training in Action 4-2, p. 108
23. The approach to operational analysis which identifies key
competencies of the job is known as
A) Job analysis.
B) Worker-oriented approach.
C) Task-oriented approach.
D) Competency modeling.
Page Ref: 108
24. In ________ competencies are defined as “a cluster of related
knowledge, skills, and attitudes that differentiate high performers from
average performers.”
A) North America
B) United Kingdom
C) Australia
D) Both A & B
E) All of the above
Page Ref: 108
25. In ________ competencies are defined as “what someone needs to be
doing to be competent in their job.”
A) North America
B) United Kingdom
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C) Australia
D) Both B & C
E) All of the above
Page Ref: 108
26. A competency-based approach focuses on
A) Knowledge and skills.
B) Attitudes and personality.
C) All characteristics that underlie successful performance.
D) Motivational characteristics.
Page Ref: 109
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding competencies?
A) They are much more specific and therefore more useful at
targeting a job.
B) They include only skills and attitudes.
C) They tie to corporate goals.
D) They are only good for the short term.
E) None of the above is true.
Page Ref: 109
28. When comparing competencies to KSAs, competencies
A) Are more specific in nature.
B) Have a shorter term fit.
C) Include knowledge, skills, and attitudes.
D) Are tied to corporate goals.
E) Both C & D.
Page Ref: 109
29. One of the more common mistakes in developing competency
modeling is
A) Not making the model tie in to the strategic goals.
B) Being too specific.
C) Simply making a list of positive attributes.
D) Focusing only on skills and knowledge.
Page Ref: 110-111
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