74. The cash flows in this problem occur every two years, so we need to find the effective two-year rate.
One way to find the effective two-year rate is to use an equation similar to the EAR, except use the
We can use this interest rate to find the PV of the perpetuity. Doing so, we find:
This is an important point: Remember that the PV equation for a perpetuity (and an ordinary
annuity) tells you the PV one period before the first cash flow. In this problem, since the cash flows
are two years apart, we have found the value of the perpetuity one period (two years) before the first
payment, which is one year ago. We need to compound this value for one year to find the value
today. The value of the cash flows today is:
The second part of the question assumes the perpetuity cash flows begin in four years. In this case,
when we use the PV of a perpetuity equation, we find the value of the perpetuity two years from
today. So, the value of these cash flows today is:
75. To solve for the PVA due:
PVA =
C
(1 +r)+C
(1 +r)2+. .. .+C
(1 +r)t
PVAdue =
C+C
(1 +r)+. . ..+C
(1 +r)t – 1
PVAdue =
(1 +r)
(
C
(1 +r)+C
(1 +r)2+.. . .+C
(1 +r)t
)
PVAdue = (1 + r)PVA
And the FVA due is:
FVA = C + C(1 + r) + C(1 + r)2 + …. + C(1 + r)t – 1