The Deal with George Foreman
the old deal with George: 60% of gross profit
approximately $64 million in 1999
Is this an accounting distortion?
correcting the balance sheet today versus forecasting the
correction in the future?
http://www.biggeorge.com/familyman/familyman.htm
Suppose Foreman Trademark has a 3 year life.
Adjusted amounts based on amortization over 3 years = 40.5M/yr or 32.4M
more than As Reported
15 yr
amortization
3 yr
amortization
2.05
2.1
2.15
2.2
2.25
2.3
2.35
2.4
2.45
net operating asset turnover
15 yr
amortization
3 year
amortization
0
0.02
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.1
0.12
0.14
net operating margin
removing the 113.9M asset
benchmark price is $1417.84 (with 9/30/2000 valuation date).
move $113,900K from Intangibles to Other Assets
method 2: remove asset in year 0
set Other Asset = $0 in 2000
lower Retained Earnings by $113,900K in 2000
note the debt/asset ratios (19.9 current and 38.1 LT)
Salton Redux
what was the point again?
accounting distortions influence on valuation
when we correct doesn’t matter
naïve extrapolation of past sales growth
overstatement of profitability
what happened? (so far)
Actual Actual Actual Actual Actual
Fiscal Year End Date 7/1/2000 7/1/2001 6/29/2002 6/29/2003 6/30/2004
Sales Growth 65.4% 5.4% 16.50% 3.00% 20.00%
Return on Equity 0.818 0.240 0.132 0.032 0.445
Financial Leverage (LEV) 2.413 1.948 1.958 1.749 1.927
sales growth mean reverts quickly