Chapter 07: Skeletal System
Colville: Clinical Anatomy and Physiology for Veterinary Technicians, 3rd Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The cells that secrete the matrix of a bone are the
a.
osteoblasts.
b.
osteoclasts.
c.
osteocytes.
d.
osteodentin.
2. The hydroxyapatite crystals that infiltrate the matrix as a bone hardens are made up of
a.
calcium and phosphate.
b.
phosphate and potassium.
c.
potassium and sodium.
d.
sodium and calcium.
3. Bones act as a storage site for primarily which mineral?
a.
calcium
b.
chloride
c.
potassium
d.
sodium
4. What are the two calcitropic hormones involved calcium homeostasis?
a.
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
b.
glucagon and calcitonin
c.
parathyroid hormone and thyroid hormone
d.
thyroid hormone and glucagon
5. Cancellous bone is sometimes called
a.
dense bone.
b.
red bone.
c.
spongy bone.
d.
yellow bone.
6. The outside layer of all bones is made up of
a.
cancellous bone.
b.
compact bone.
c.
osteoblasts.
d.
osteoclasts.
7. The __ contains(s) blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves that supply osteocytes.
a.
canaliculi
b.
endosteum
c.
haversian canal
d.
periosteum
8. Large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter large long bones through channels called
a.
canaliculi.
b.
haversian canals.
c.
nutrient foramina.
d.
Volkmann’s canals.
9. As a young animal grows so must its bones grow. Where does creation of new bone that
allows long bones to lengthen as the animal grows take place?
a.
diaphyseal surface
b.
diaphysis
c.
epiphyseal plates
d.
epiphysis
10. Endochondral bone formation takes place in a fetus over a __ template that is eventually
replaced by bone.
a.
adipose tissue
b.
cartilage
c.
fibrous connective tissue
d.
membrane
11. Which one of the following bones is formed by intramembranous bone formation?
a.
mandible bone of the lower jaw
b.
patella of the rear leg
c.
scapula of the front leg
d.
temporal bone of the skull
12. The diaphysis is the __ of a long bone.
a.
distal end
b.
growth plate
c.
long shaft
d.
proximal end
13. Fractures of the __ of long bones are especially common in young animals.
a.
condyle
b.
diaphysis
c.
epiphyseal plate
d.
epiphysis
14. Besides alignment and immobilization of a fracture, what else is needed for optimal healing to
occur?
a.
fixation
b.
reduction
c.
setting
d.
time
15. The __ of a fracture is the healing tissue felt as a lump at the site of a fracture.
a.
callus
b.
clot
c.
fracture hematoma
d.
remodeling
16. Which one of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone?
a.
femur
b.
patella
c.
scapula
d.
tarsal bone
17. Red bone marrow consists primarily of
a.
adipose tissue.
b.
blood-forming tissue.
c.
osteoblasts.
d.
osteoclasts.
18. A large, round, articular surface found at the distal end of the humerus is called a
a.
condyle.
b.
facet.
c.
foramen.
d.
head.
19. A depressed or sunken area on the surface of a bone is called a/an
a.
articulation.
b.
facet.
c.
fossa.
d.
head.
20. A flat, articular surface that allows a rocking motion between bones is a
a.
condyle.
b.
facet.
c.
fossa.
d.
head.
21. A hole in a bone is called a/an
a.
articulation.
b.
condyle.
c.
foramen.
d.
fossa.
22. Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?
a.
pelvis
b.
ribcage
c.
skull
d.
spinal column
23. From cranial to caudal what is the correct sequence of letter designations for the five regions
of the spinal column?
a.
C, CY, L, S, T
b.
C, T, L, S, CY
c.
CY, S, T, L, C
d.
T, C, S, L, CY
24. The most caudal external bone of the cranium is the
a.
frontal bone.
b.
interparietal bone.
c.
occipital bone.
d.
temporal bone.
25. The bone that forms the forehead region of the skull is the
a.
ethmoid bone.
b.
frontal bone.
c.
occipital bone.
d.
temporal bone.
26. The foramen magnum is located in the __ bone.
a.
interparietal
b.
occipital
c.
sphenoid
d.
temporal
27. Which external bones of the cranium form the lateral walls of the cranium?
a.
incisive bones
b.
interparietal bones
c.
maxillary bones
d.
temporal bones
28. When cattle are dehorned, the corneal process of which bone is removed?
a.
ethmoid
b.
frontal
c.
sphenoid
d.
temporal
29. Which bone of the cranium houses the pituitary gland?
a.
ethmoid
b.
frontal
c.
occipital
d.
sphenoid
30. Starting from the outside, what is the correct sequence of the ear bones in the middle ear?
a.
incus, malleus, stapes
b.
incus, stapes, malleus
c.
malleus, incus, stapes
d.
stapes, malleus, incus
31. Which face bones are elongated in dolichocephalic dogs?
a.
incisive
b.
maxillary
c.
nasal
d.
zygomatic
32. Which face bone forms the rostral part of the hard palate?
a.
lacrimal
b.
maxillary
c.
nasal
d.
zygomatic
33. Which face bone houses the upper incisor teeth in a horse?
a.
incisive
b.
mandible
c.
maxillary
d.
nasal
34. Which face bone forms the lower jaw?
a.
mandible
b.
maxillary
c.
temporal
d.
zygomatic
35. What bony structure on the face of cats and dogs forms the easily palpable widest part of the
skull?
a.
ramus of the mandible
b.
temporal mandibular joint
c.
vomer bone
d.
zygomatic arches
36. Which face bone forms the caudal portion of the hard palate?
a.
ethmoid
b.
palatine
c.
pterygoid
d.
sphenoid
37. Which bone forms part of the nasal septum?
a.
maxillary
b.
palatine
c.
sphenoid
d.
vomer
38. The cribriform plate is contained in the __ bone.
a.
ethmoid
b.
incisive
c.
sphenoid
d.
vomer
39. Where on the dorsal surface of an animal would you look for the L3 vertebra?
a.
abdominal area
b.
neck area
c.
pelvic area
d.
thoracic area
40. Which vertebra has no vertebral body, but is made up of only a bony ring with two transverse
processes sticking out laterally?
a.
C1
b.
C2
c.
T11
d.
T12
41. Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.
a.
costochondral
b.
lumbosacral
c.
sacroiliac
d.
thoracolumbar
42. Which two species of animal are most commonly affected with Wobbler syndrome?
a.
bovine and equine
b.
canine and feline
c.
equine and canine
d.
feline and bovine
43. Costal cartilage is found
a.
at the dorsal end of a rib.
b.
at the ventral end of a rib.
c.
on the caudal surface of a rib.
d.
on the cranial surface of a rib.
44. The xyphoid process is found
a.
at the caudal end of the sternum.
b.
at the cranial end of the sternum.
c.
on the caudal surface of a rib.
d.
on the cranial surface of a rib.
45. The manubrium is a/an
a.
asternal rib.
b.
floating rib.
c.
sternebra.
d.
vertebra.
46. The costochondral junction is found
a.
at the dorsal end of the bony part of a rib.
b.
at the ventral end of the bony part of a rib.
c.
where the rib joins the sternum.
d.
where the rib joins the vertebral column.
47. Which bone in the appendicular skeleton has an olecranon process?
a.
femur
b.
radius
c.
tibia
d.
ulna
48. Which bone in the appendicular skeleton has a ridge called a crest?
a.
femur
b.
fibula
c.
humerus
d.
tibia
49. Which bone in the appendicular skeleton has a bony spine on its lateral surface?
a.
fibula
b.
humerus
c.
scapula
d.
ulna
50. Which bone is found in the antebrachium?
a.
femur
b.
humerus
c.
radius
d.
tibia
51. Which bone forms the brachium?
a.
femur
b.
humerus
c.
metacarpal
d.
scapula
52. Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?
a.
carpal
b.
metacarpal
c.
metatarsal
d.
tarsal
53. Splint bones in horses are
a.
vestigial carpal bones.
b.
vestigial distal sesamoid bones.
c.
vestigial metacarpal bones.
d.
vestigial proximal sesamoid bones.
54. Dewclaws in dogs are found on the __ surface of the leg.
a.
caudal
b.
cranial
c.
lateral
d.
medial
55. The coffin bone in horses is the
a.
distal phalanx.
b.
distal sesamoid bone.
c.
middle phalanx.
d.
proximal sesamoid bone.
56. The fetlock joint in horses is located between the __ and __ bones.
a.
distal phalanx and distal sesamoid
b.
metacarpal and proximal phalanx
c.
proximal phalanx and distal phalanx
d.
proximal sesamoid and metacarpal
57. The navicular bone is another name for the __ bone in horses.
a.
distal sesamoid
b.
middle phalanx
c.
proximal phalanx
d.
proximal sesamoid
58. How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?
a.
0
b.
2
c.
4
d.
8
59. What is the correct order of bones on the thoracic limb starting distally and working
proximally?
a.
metacarpal bones, carpal bones, phalanges, ulna, radius, scapula, humerus
b.
phalanges, carpal bones, metacarpal bones, ulna, radius, humerus, scapula
c.
phalanges, metacarpal bones, carpal bones, radius, ulna, humerus, scapula
d.
scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, metacarpal bones, carpal bones, phalanges
60. An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?
a.
fibula
b.
radius
c.
tibia
d.
ulna
61. Which bones fuse to make up the acetabulum?
a.
femur, ilium
b.
ilium, ischium, pubis
c.
ilium, pubis
d.
ischium, ilium, femur
62. The obturator foramina is found in the
a.
occipital bone.
b.
patella.
c.
pelvis.
d.
vertebral column.
63. What part of the pelvis can be seen as the point of the hip in cattle?
a.
femur
b.
ilium
c.
ischium
d.
sacrum
64. The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the
a.
hyoid bone.
b.
incus.
c.
navicular bone.
d.
patella.
65. The main weight-bearing bone of the lower pelvic limb is the
a.
femur.
b.
fibula.
c.
tarsus.
d.
tibia.
66. What two bones form the stifle joint?
a.
femur and ilium
b.
femur and tibia
c.
tibia and fibula
d.
tibia and tarsus
67. The point of the hock is actually the
a.
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
b.
calcaneal tuberosity of the tibial tarsal bone.
c.
tibial crest.
d.
tibial tuberosity.
68. The hock is made up of
a.
carpal bones.
b.
digits.
c.
phalanges.
d.
tarsal bones.
69. In which species will you find an os penis?
a.
bovine
b.
canine
c.
equine
d.
feline
70. The joints found between the vertebrae of the spinal column are classified as __ joints
a.
cartilaginous
b.
fibrous
c.
fused
d.
synovial
71. Firm connective tissue bands that help stabilize the bones that make up a joint and help hold
the joint together are called
a.
joint capsule.
b.
ligaments.
c.
synovial membranes.
d.
tendons.
72. The movement of an extremity away from median plane of the body is
a.
abduction.
b.
adduction.
c.
extension.
d.
flexion.
73. Decreasing the angle between two bones results in
a.
abduction.
b.
adduction.
c.
extension.
d.
flexion.
74. Increasing the angle between two bones results in
a.
abduction.
b.
circumduction.
c.
extension.
d.
rotation.
75. Hinge joints are capable of only two movements. They are
a.
abduction and adduction.
b.
adduction and extension.
c.
extension and flexion.
d.
flexion and abduction.
76. The main movements possible in a gliding joint in four-legged animals are
a.
abduction and adduction.
b.
adduction and extension.
c.
extension and flexion.
d.
flexion and abduction.
77. An example of an arthrodial joint is the __ joint.
a.
atlantooccipital
b.
carpus
c.
coxofemoral
d.
stifle
78. Which type of joint allows for only rotation movement?
a.
arthrodial
b.
ginglymus
c.
spheroidal
d.
trochoid
79. Which type of joint allows all synovial joint movements?
a.
arthrodial
b.
ginglymus
c.
spheroidal
d.
trochoid
80. A ginglymus joint is also known as a __ joint.
a.
ball and socket
b.
gliding
c.
hinge
d.
pivot