Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth
1. Ovulation tends to occur _____ of the menstrual cycle.
a.
on the first day
b.
within the first week
c.
near the midpoint
d.
at the end
2. The most common first medical step in assisted reproductive technology is to have a women take a drug that
a.
increases the size of her cervix.
b.
straightens the lining of her fallopian tubes.
c.
decreases her testosterone levels.
d.
stimulates the ovaries to ripen and release eggs.
3. The germinal period ends when the
a.
b.
c.
d.
4. About _____ of all fertilized ova are successfully implanted in the uterus.
a.
one-fifth
b.
one-fourth
c.
one-third
d.
one-half
5. Natalie is six weeks pregnant. At this point, the organism growing inside of her is most properly referred to as a(n)
a.
blastula.
b.
embryo.
c.
fetus.
d.
zygote.
6. All major organs begin to develop in some fashion during the _____ period.
a.
germinal
b.
zygotic
c.
fetal
d.
embryonic
7. While observing developing cells, Dr. Hernandez shouts, “I am seeing actual organogenesis taking place!” In simple
terms, Dr. Hernandez is viewing
a.
meiosis.
b.
the formation of a blastula.
c.
the initial formation of major body organs.
d.
a breech presentation.
8. The outer layer of the embryo forms the
a.
amnion and chorion.
b.
placenta and umbilical cord.
c.
brain and spinal cord of the fetus.
d.
heart and internal organs.
9. The function of the amnion is to
a.
connect the placenta to the developing fetus.
b.
provide a cushion of protection for the developing embryo.
c.
provide nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo.
d.
remove waste products from the developing fetus.
10. The lining of the _____ originates as tissue called the chorion.
a.
amnion
b.
placenta
c.
blastula
d.
zygote
11. The umbilical cord connects the
a.
amnion and chorion
b.
blastula and zygote.
c.
heart and lungs.
d.
embryo and placenta.
12. In her human development class, Dr. Ayers shows students several photographs of prenatal development. She points
out the placenta and explains that its main purpose is to
a.
provide the fetus with carbon dioxide and oxygen.
b.
enable the maternal and fetal blood to mix so they will become compatible.
c.
provide the fetus with oxygen and nutrients and remove carbon dioxide and wastes from the fetus.
d.
protect and cushion the fetus from shock.
13. What is the most important factor in determining what crosses the “placental barrier”?
a.
The size of a molecule
b.
The age of the fetus
c.
The duration of the pregnancy
d.
The age of the mother
14. The initial formation of a primitive heart would take place during the _____ period of development.
a.
zygotic
b.
germinal
c.
fetal
d.
embryonic
15. Due to her accurate knowledge of prenatal physiology, Amber knows that because her unborn child suffers from
anencephaly, the child will be born with
a.
a conjoined twin.
b.
abnormal limb development.
c.
ambiguous genitals.
d.
no developed brain above the brain stem.
16. After completing an exam and discussing her diet, Dr. Jamison noted that Wanda’s unborn baby could be at risk for
neural tube disorders. What type of supplement did Dr. Jamison recommend to Wanda?
a.
vitamin A
b.
calcium
c.
folic acid
d.
iron
17. By secreting the hormone _____, the male embryo stimulates the development of the internal male reproductive
system.
a.
estrogen
b.
teratogen
c.
surfactant
d.
testosterone
18. In order for an embryo to construct testes, that embryo must have at least _____ at conception.
a.
one X chromosome
b.
two X chromosomes
c.
one Y chromosome
d.
two Y chromosomes
19. Which statement about development in the embryonic stage of development is true?
a.
The embryo is viable by the end of the stage.
b.
The eyes develop between days 21 and 28.
c.
The primitive portions of the brain form last.
d.
At this end of this period, the organism is about 10 inches long.
20. The fetal period is best defined as
a.
the middle three months of pregnancy.
b.
all of the pregnancy that follows the implantation of the blastula in the uterine wall.
c.
the part of the pregnancy that extends from the age of viability to birth.
d.
the period from the ninth week of pregnancy to birth.
21. Salima is now 25 weeks pregnant. At this point, the organism growing inside of her would best be classified as a(n)
a.
blastula.
b.
embryo.
c.
fetus.
d.
zygote.
22. One of the main roles of glial cells is to
a.
provide support for neurons.
b.
produce the spinal cord.
c.
create a functioning respiratory system.
d.
determine the sex of a fetus.
23. Neurons that will become part of the cerebral cortex migrate by
a.
being passively pushed to their location.
b.
traveling along the surface of glial cells.
c.
following dendrites.
d.
diffusion.
24. Early in development, every neuron has the potential to
a.
become any type of cell.
b.
become a stem cell.
c.
become any type of neuron.
d.
become a glial cell.
25. The process of brain development characterized by intense cell growth originating in stem cells is called
a.
migration.
b.
proliferation.
c.
differentiation.
d.
mutation.
26. Maria, who just found out she is pregnant, wonders at what point her baby will be able to hear. A competent doctor
would tell her that her baby’s sensory organs
a.
begin to function during the embryonic phase.
b.
will be functioning by the end of the second trimester.
c.
do not function prior to the eighth or ninth month of pregnancy.
d.
will not function prior to birth.
27. The term “age of viability” refers to the point at which
a.
a child will definitely survive if born.
b.
survival outside the uterus might be possible.
c.
the embryo no longer requires oxygen from its mother.
d.
the heart starts beating.
28. Who has just reached the current “age of viability” for a human?
a.
Ben, who has survived 18 weeks past conception
b.
Montell, who has survived 21 weeks past conception
c.
Hae, who has survived 23 weeks past conception
d.
Dora, who has survived 27 weeks past conception
29. Sunny is a 20-week-old fetus. Robert is a 32-week-old fetus. If they were both developing normally, one would expect
that Robert would _____ than Sunny.
a.
have a significantly less surfactant
b.
spend less time in distinct states of activity
c.
have significantly less myelin
d.
spend significantly more time in the awake state
30. Your psychology professor asks you to write a paper on the prenatal environment. Which search topic should you use
for your Web search?
a.
The mother’s womb
b.
The hospital birthing room
c.
The process of birth
d.
The newborn’s crib
31. Which of the following is true?
a.
The quality of a postnatal environment has little impact on the effect of a teratogen.
b.
The genetic makeup of a fetus can influence the impact of a teratogen.
c.
The effects of a teratogen do not appear to be related to the “dose” received.
d.
An organ system is least vulnerable to the effects of a teratogen when it is developing rapidly.
32. The time of rapid growth of an organ system is called its _____ period.
a.
critical
b.
germinal
c.
resilience
d.
prenatal
33. Which organism is most vulnerable to organ systems damage?
a.
The blastula
b.
The embryo
c.
The fetus
d.
The zygote
34. Back in 1962, Celeste started taking the drug thalidomide in her sixth month of pregnancy. What were the likely
impacts of Celeste’s behavior on her baby?
a.
cognitive impairment
b.
heart problems
c.
deformed or missing limbs
d.
no harmful effects
35. On an average day, Jenna smokes about 24 cigarettes and has done so throughout her pregnancy. Consequently, she
has put her baby at increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT
a.
hyperacute hearing.
b.
slowed growth.
c.
central nervous system impairment.
d.
susceptibility to respiratory infection.
36. Rice, Thapar, and colleagues (2007, 2009) attempted to uncouple the effects of genetics and the effects of smoking
while pregnant on birth weight and elevated antisocial behavior. They found that
a.
birth weight was unrelated to smoking.
b.
antisocial behaviors elevated the risk for smoking.
c.
antisocial behavior could be linked to genes but not to smoking.
d.
genetic factors appear to cause smoking.
37. Rihanna has just given birth to a baby girl and notices that the child has a small head, widely spaced eyes, and a
flattened nose. What are the doctors most likely to suspect?
a.
Rihanna consumed considerable quantities of alcohol during the pregnancy.
b.
Rihanna had rubella during the second month of her pregnancy.
c.
Rihanna had syphilis and did not seek treatment for it.
d.
Rihanna did not eat properly throughout the pregnancy.
38. Mayako did not know she was pregnant until she was about three months along. During that time, she drank alcoholic
beverages quite frequently. While prenatal alcohol consumption can influence the developing embryo and fetus in a
number of ways, Mayako should be LEAST concerned about having a newborn who
a.
has hyperactivity.
b.
has lowered intelligence.
c.
has seizures.
d.
has a deformed heart.
39. Whose behavior would have the greatest NEGATIVE impact on a baby’s brain development?
a.
A mother who consumes one bottle of beer a day most days during the infant’s embryonic period
b.
A mother who consumes five bottles of beer a day, several days a week during the infant’s embryonic period
c.
A mother who consumes one bottle of beer a day most days during her seventh month of pregnancy
d.
A mother who consumes five bottles of beer a day, several days a week during her seventh month of
pregnancy
40. Maria frequently used cocaine while she was pregnant. The most likely effect on her baby would be
a.
fetal strokes.
b.
extreme cognitive impairments.
c.
blindness.
d.
a hearing impairment.
41. Holly’s newborn appears malnourished, has a low birth weight, and is showing withdrawal-like symptoms. Given this
description, Holly most likely _____ while she was pregnant.
a.
contracted syphilis
b.
abused alcohol
c.
contracted HIV
d.
abused cocaine
42. Sarah and Nadiya are best friends who both contract rubella. At the time they have the disease, Sarah is seven weeks
pregnant and Nadiya is seven months pregnant. What is the most likely outcome?
a.
Sarah’s child will be born unharmed, but Nadiya’s child will have some sort of birth defect resulting from
rubella.
b.
Nadiya’s child will be born unharmed, but Sarah’s child will have some sort of birth defect resulting from
rubella.
c.
Sarah and Nadiya will both give birth to children with birth defects resulting from rubella.
d.
There is no need for Sarah or Nadiya to worry about birth defects as a result of having rubella.
43. Who is most at risk for being deaf due to the effects of rubella?
a.
Erik, whose mother contracted rubella 8 weeks after he was conceived
b.
Thuc, whose mother contracted rubella 18 weeks after he was conceived
c.
Hector, whose mother contracted rubella 28 weeks after he was conceived
d.
Wade, whose mother contracted rubella 38 weeks after he was conceived
44. Rubella and syphilis both
a.
can be successfully treated with penicillin.
b.
have the greatest impact late in the pregnancy.
c.
cause heart problems and blindness.
d.
are commonly classified as sexually transmitted diseases.
45. When Paula’s son Alex is born is born in the United States, he tests positive for HIV. Paula wonders what this means
for her son’s life expectancy. The doctor is most likely to tell her that, Alex will
a.
die within a few weeks.
b.
live one to two years.
c.
have a 50 to 75 percent chance of living to age five.
d.
be unlikely to ever die of the complications of AIDS.
46. Fatima is pregnant and tests positive for HIV. When her daughter Kaya is born, she does not have the HIV virus.
Fatima’s doctor is most likely to tell her
a.
she should breast feed her daughter so she can benefit from natural immunities to infection that breast milk
often provides.
b.
she should not breast feed her daughter, as she might transmit the HIV virus through her breast milk.
c.
she and her daughter are very fortunate, and she need no longer worry about transmitting the virus to her.
d.
since she did not transmit the HIV virus to this child, it is unlikely that she would transmit the virus to another
child, should she become pregnant again.
47. The AIDS virus CANNOT be contracted
a.
at conception through a chromosomal abnormality.
b.
during the prenatal period, when the HIV virus crosses the placental barrier.
c.
during the birth process, when maternal and fetal blood may mix.
d.
following birth, through breast feeding.
48. Hoshi is an X-ray technician. She takes special care to avoid exposure to radiation in her work environment, because
she is trying to get pregnant and she knows that there can be negative effects from exposure to radiation on her baby.
Which impact should she be LEAST concerned about?
a.
Spontaneous abortion
b.
Mutations
c.
Cognitive impairment
d.
Anoxia
49. The most dangerous time for a baby to be exposed to most chemical teratogens is
a.
at conception.
b.
during birth.
c.
at the age of viability.
d.
when organs are growing rapidly.
50. Who is within the optimal age for childbearing?
a.
Chantal, who is 18
b.
Holly, who is 26
c.
Rosa, who is 35
d.
Erica, who is 45
51. Trisha, age 25, is wondering what the best age would be for her to begin a family. If the only consideration is physical
(in other words, factors such as emotional readiness are not an issue), her doctor is most likely to respond by saying,
a.
“Now would be a perfect time.”
b.
“You better get working on it, because you only have a few good years left.”
c.
“It would have been best to start your family sooner.”
d.
“You would do well to wait until you are in your 30s.”
52. Moesha has been extremely stressed throughout her pregnancy. Her husband left her, she was laid off from work, and
her mother died. Her doctor informs her that the extreme stress she has been under may have caused hormonal secretions
of adrenaline that could affect her child. What would be the most likely impact on Moesha’s baby?
a.
Deafness
b.
Impaired vision
c.
Mild intellectual disability
d.
Increased irritability and crying