Chapter 12: Blood, Lymph, and Lymph Nodes
Colville: Clinical Anatomy and Physiology for Veterinary Technicians, 3rd Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. If an anticoagulant is used when collecting a blood sample, the fluid obtained from the sample
after it has been centrifuged is
a.
peripheral blood.
b.
plasma.
c.
serum.
d.
whole blood.
2. There are 13 clotting factors. What is the minimum number of factors that can be deficient or
absent before blood will not clot?
a.
0
b.
1
c.
7
d.
13
3. EDTA is a/an
a.
anticoagulant.
b.
clotting factor.
c.
hematology stain.
d.
plasma protein.
4. Granulocytes are blood cells that have
a.
red, blue, or yellow granules in their cytoplasm during the entire cellular
maturation process.
b.
red, blue, or yellow granules in their cytoplasm when the cells are mature.
c.
specific granules in their cytoplasm that become nonspecific as the cell matures.
d.
specific granules in their cytoplasm when the cells are mature.
5. An example of an agranulocytic leukocyte is a/an
a.
basophil.
b.
erythrocyte.
c.
lymphocyte.
d.
neutrophil.
6. A term that describes normal monocyte production is
a.
monocytoblastosis.
b.
monocytopenia.
c.
monocytopoiesis.
d.
monocytosis.
7. An animal that has been vomiting frequently for the past 5 days and has been eating or
drinking very little will most likely suffer from
a.
hematopoiesis.
b.
hemoconcentration.
c.
hemodilution.
d.
hemolysis.
8. In a 3-year-old sheep most leukocyte production takes place in the
a.
liver.
b.
red bone marrow.
c.
spleen.
d.
yellow bone marrow.
9. Yellow bone marrow is composed primarily of
a.
fat cells.
b.
fibrous connective tissue.
c.
immature erythrocytes.
d.
immature leukocytes.
10. Which of the following cells is the most primitive?
a.
megakaryoblast
b.
megakaryocyte
c.
pluripotential stem cell
d.
unipotential stem cell
11. The rate of erythropoiesis is controlled by erythropoietin, which is a/an
a.
enzyme produced by the kidney.
b.
enzyme produced by the spleen.
c.
hormone produced by the kidney.
d.
hormone produced by the spleen.
12. An NRBC (nucleated RBC) is __ a mature erythrocyte.
a.
from a different cell line than
b.
less mature than
c.
more mature than
d.
the same as
13. Polychromasia seen erythrocytes is a sign of
a.
acid/base imbalance.
b.
cell death.
c.
dehydration.
d.
immaturity.
14. A megakaryocyte will eventually produce
a.
erythrocytes.
b.
monocytes.
c.
neutrophils.
d.
thrombocytes.
15. Which mature blood cell is described as a non-nucleated biconcave disc?
a.
erythrocyte
b.
lymphocyte
c.
monocyte
d.
thrombocyte
16. How many heme molecules are contained in one hemoglobin molecule?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
17. One hemoglobin molecule can carry how many molecules of oxygen?
a.
16
b.
2
c.
4
d.
8
18. Oxygen carried in a hemoglobin molecule is bound to a/an
a.
calcium atom.
b.
globin molecule.
c.
iron atom.
d.
protein molecule.
19. What gives hemoglobin its natural color?
a.
the carbon dioxide molecule
b.
the globin molecule
c.
the heme molecule
d.
the oxygen molecule
20. What nutrient do erythrocytes utilize to stay alive in a blood collection tube filled with blood?
a.
calcium
b.
glucose
c.
iron
d.
vitamin B12
21. A senescent erythrocyte is a/an __ erythrocyte.
a.
aged
b.
deformed
c.
immature
d.
nucleated
22. The organ in an animal’s body that is the primary site of extravascular hemolysis is the
a.
kidney.
b.
liver.
c.
lung.
d.
spleen.
23. Stercobilinogen is a breakdown product of
a.
amino acids.
b.
globin.
c.
heme.
d.
liver cells.
24. Stercobilin is a/an
a.
amino acid.
b.
bacteria.
c.
nutrient.
d.
pigment.
25. Jaundice (icterus) could be a result of
a.
decreased amounts of conjugated bilirubin.
b.
decreased intravascular hemolysis.
c.
excessive amounts of glucuronic acid.
d.
excessive amounts of unconjugated bilirubin.
26. The PCV is determined using
a.
plasma only.
b.
serum only.
c.
whole blood with an anticoagulant added.
d.
whole blood with no anticoagulant added.
27. The normal reference range for the hematocrit in an adult dog is 35% to 57%. Allover, an
adult Golden Retriever, has a hematocrit of 15%. This is an indication that Allover might
a.
be anemic.
b.
be dehydrated.
c.
have circulating immature erythrocytes.
d.
have larger than normal circulating erythrocytes.
28. Which one of the following blood tests would measure the average size of an erythrocyte in a
blood sample?
a.
mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
b.
mean corpuscular volume
c.
red cell distribution width
d.
reticulocyte count
29. When performing a manual differential white blood cell count, how many white blood cells
do you count per stained blood smear?
a.
1000 white blood cells
b.
100 white blood cells
c.
500 white blood cells
d.
80 white blood cells
30. If you counted 95% neutrophils on a cow’s differential white blood cell count and the normal
range is 15% to 33%, this would be classified as a
a.
leukocytopenia.
b.
leukocytosis.
c.
neutropenia.
d.
neutrophilia.
31. The process by which blood is prevented from leaking out of damaged blood vessels is
a.
hematocytosis.
b.
hematopoiesis.
c.
hemolysis.
d.
hemostasis.
32. During hemostasis which process occurs first?
a.
coagulation cascade
b.
fibrinolysis
c.
platelet adhesion
d.
platelet aggregation
33. The function of all white blood cells is
a.
antibody production.
b.
defense.
c.
phagocytosis.
d.
toxin neutralization.
34. The PMN is also known as a/an
a.
eosinophil.
b.
lymphocyte.
c.
monocyte.
d.
neutrophil.
35. Where do neutrophils mature in a normal, healthy animal?
a.
circulating pool
b.
marginal pool
c.
red bone marrow
d.
tissue
36. An immature neutrophil with a horseshoe-shaped nucleus is called a
a.
band cell.
b.
metamyelocyte.
c.
myelocyte.
d.
promyelocyte.
37. If immature neutrophils are observed in peripheral blood, the condition is called a
a.
left shift.
b.
leukemia.
c.
leukopenia.
d.
right shift.
38. White blood cells use peripheral blood for
a.
immunity.
b.
maturation.
c.
production.
d.
transportation.
39. You are looking at a stained smear of horse blood and you see a leukocyte with large red
granules in its cytoplasm. What cell are you most likely seeing?
a.
basophil
b.
eosinophil
c.
lymphocyte
d.
monocyte
40. What is the minimum number of nuclear lobes seen in a hypersegmented neutrophil?
a.
3
b.
5
c.
6
d.
8
41. The process by which a neutrophil squeezes between the cells of the endothelium to leave a
blood vessel and enter tissue is called
a.
chemotaxis.
b.
diapedesis.
c.
opsonization.
d.
phagocytosis.
42. The process by which neutrophils are attracted to the site of an infection by the interaction
between microorganisms and tissue is called
a.
chemotaxis.
b.
diapedesis.
c.
opsonization.
d.
phagocytosis.
43. The process by which neutrophils engulf invading foreign microorganisms is called
a.
chemotaxis.
b.
diapedesis.
c.
opsonization.
d.
phagocytosis.
44. This granulocyte makes up less than 1% of the circulating leukocytes.
a.
basophil
b.
eosinophil
c.
lymphocyte
d.
monocyte
45. This granulocyte’s granules contain heparin.
a.
basophil
b.
eosinophil
c.
lymphocyte
d.
neutrophil
46. Which leukocyte is responsible for cell-mediated immunity?
a.
B lymphoctyte
b.
monocyte
c.
plasma cell
d.
T lymphocyte
47. Immunoglobulins are produced by which leukocyte?
a.
B lymphocyte
b.
monocyte
c.
plasma cell
d.
T lymphocyte
48. Natural killer cells are a type of
a.
eosinophil.
b.
lymphocyte.
c.
monocyte.
d.
neutrophil.
49. One antibody type has thousands of antigen receptors on its cell surface. How many types of
antigens will typically fit these receptors?
a.
5
b.
1
c.
10
d.
20
50. Blastic transformation of B lymphocytes will produce
a.
lymphoblasts.
b.
memory cells.
c.
plasma cells.
d.
T lymphocytes.
51. When monocytes enter tissue they become
a.
macrophages.
b.
mast cells.
c.
neutrophils.
d.
NK cells.
52. Along with tissue macrophages, which leukocytes make up the mononuclear phagocyte
system?
a.
eosinophils
b.
lymphocytes
c.
monocytes
d.
neutrophils
53. Which set of vessels may contain one-way valves to prevent backflow?
a.
arteries and capillaries
b.
arteries and veins
c.
capillaries and lymph vessels
d.
veins and lymph vessels
54. Lymph from the digestive tract is called
a.
ascites.
b.
chyle.
c.
chyme.
d.
edema.
55. Where would you look for the thymus in a young animal?
a.
axillary region
b.
cranial abdomen
c.
cranial thorax
d.
inguinal region
56. You would most likely see postprandial lipemia
a.
immediately following a surgical procedure.
b.
shortly after an animal has been exercised.
c.
shortly after an animal has eaten.
d.
when an animal is stressed.
57. Which vessel carries lymph into a lymph node?
a.
afferent lymph vessel
b.
efferent lymph vessel
c.
lymph artery
d.
thoracic duct
58. The organ that is made up of white pulp and red pulp is the
a.
kidney.
b.
liver.
c.
lymph node.
d.
spleen.
59. Which organ is capable of storing blood that can be released into circulation when the animal
needs it?
a.
kidney
b.
liver
c.
lymph node
d.
spleen
60. Tonsils differ from lymph nodes in that they
a.
are found along lymph vessels.
b.
are found throughout the body.
c.
are most prominent in older animals.
d.
are not encapsulated.