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Section 1. Neurological Problems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which statement about confusion is true?
A.
Confusion is a disease process.
B.
Confusion is always temporary.
C.
Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
D.
Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
2. Which of the following indicates a diagnosis of dementia?
A.
Onset after an infection
B.
Abrupt onset over a week
C.
Difficulty with long-term memory
D.
Hard time finding words
3. Which of the following aspects of the patient history is a hallmark of delirium?
A.
Patient has chronic kidney disease.
B.
Patient has had aphasia for a year.
C.
Patient has diabetes mellitus.
D.
Patient has been getting lost driving home.
4. Which of the following may trigger migraines?
A.
Taking an ibuprofen for muscle pain
B.
A cup of coffee with regular sweetener
C.
A glass of merlot wine
D.
Drinking a cup of green tea
5. Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following
medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
A.
Meclizine
B.
Diphenhydramine
C.
Diamox
D.
Promethazine
6. The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
A.
No activity at all
B.
A blank stare
C.
Urine is usually voided involuntarily
D.
The attack usually lasts several minutes
7. Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis
(MS)?
A.
A teenage male
B.
A 65-year-old male
C.
A 25-year-old female
D.
A 60-year-old female
8. Which of the following is a specific test to MS?
A.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B.
Computed tomography (CT) scan
C.
A lumbar puncture
D.
There is no specific test
9. Over the course of 3 years, a patient has had two MS flares. The patient’s primary complaints
during the episodes are bilateral tingling and pain in their legs, depression, and numbness in
their right hand with complete recovery in between occurrences. Which MS classification fits
their disease process?
A.
Clinically isolated syndrome
B.
Relapsing-remitting
C.
Primary progressive
D.
Secondary progressive
10. A patient with MS is complaining of new-onset “electric tingling” in both their arms. Which
medication specifically treats these acute exacerbations?
A.
Lemtrada
B.
Aubagio
C.
Zanaflex
D.
Depo-Medrol
11. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s disease?
A.
Having a master’s or doctoral degree
B.
Patient is a physician
C.
Patient has Down’s syndrome
D.
History of neurological disease
12. Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of
diagnosis?
A.
Cholinesterase inhibitors
B.
Anxiolytics
C.
Antidepressants
D.
Atypical antipsychotics
13. The health-care provider is treating a patient who was hit in the head with a frying pan. Which
of the following should the provider suspect?
A.
Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
B.
Subdural hematoma
C.
Epidural hematoma
D.
Subarachnoid hematoma
14. Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle
meningeal artery?
A.
Epidural hematoma
B.
Subdural hematoma
C.
Subarachnoid hematoma
D.
Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
15. Which of the following must be completed prior to administering TPA (tissue plasminogen
activator)?
A.
Full-body MRI
B.
Head x-ray
C.
Head CT
D.
Head MRI
16. Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty
chewing?
A.
CN V
B.
CN VII
C.
CN IX
D.
CN X
17. Which of the following has been linked to a delay in treatment for stroke?
A.
Patient has stroke symptoms at work.
B.
Patient experiences stroke during the day.
C.
Patient lives with a family member.
D.
Patient calls their primary-care provider (PCP) instead of 911 at sign of stroke.
18. When a patient has a carotid bruit, which of the following should the PCP gather from the
patient history?
A.
History of hemophilia
B.
History of peripheral vascular occlusive disease
C.
History of seizure disorder
D.
History of sickle cell disease
19. Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A.
A female in her reproductive years
B.
A 40-year-old African American male
C.
A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
D.
A 45-year-old male awakened at night
20. Which patient is most likely to have myasthenia gravis (MG)?
A.
A 75-year-old Caucasian woman
B.
A 31-year-old Hispanic woman
C.
A 55-year-old African American male
D.
A 10-year-old Middle Eastern male
21. Inattention and a sleep–wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of:
A.
Dementia
B.
Alzheimer’s disease
C.
Parkinson’s disease
D.
Delirium
22. Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
A.
Purulent meningitis
B.
Chronic meningitis
C.
Aseptic meningitis
D.
Herpes meningitis
23. A patient has been diagnosed with meningitis caused by a Streptococcus pneumoniae
infection. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
A.
Cefotaxime
B.
Isoniazid
C.
Acyclovir
D.
Amphotericin
24. Which of the following should be started promptly if viral encephalitis is suspected?
A.
Oral amoxicillin
B.
IV acyclovir
C.
IV ampicillin
D.
Oral acyclovir
25. What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make
you suspect herpes zoster?
A.
A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
B.
A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
C.
A pain that is worse upon awakening
D.
A lesion on the exterior ear canal
26. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A.
A 6-month-old infant
B.
A 30-year-old man
C.
A 72-year-old woman
D.
A 50-year-old man
27. Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she
is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
A.
“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
B.
“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
C.
“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
D.
“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no
permanent damage.”
28. A patient is presenting with chorea (dance-like movements). Which of the following diseases
might the patient have?
A.
Dementia
B.
Parkinson’s disease
C.
Wilson’s disease
D.
Huntington’s disease
29. Which of the following signs would a health-care provider expect to see in a patient with
Parkinson-plus disorder?
A.
Resting tremor
B.
Bradykinesia
C.
Rigidity
D.
Postural instability
30. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a migraine?
A.
Light sensitivity
B.
Nonpulsatile pain
C.
Nasal stuffiness
D.
Bandlike pain
31. Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than
what percentage of stenosis?
A.
Greater than 25%
B.
Greater than 50%
C.
Greater than 75%
D.
Only for 100% occlusion
32. Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
A.
Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
B.
Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
C.
Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
D.
Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean
33. About 90% of all headaches are:
A.
Tension
B.
Migraine
C.
Cluster
D.
Without pathological cause
34. Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
A.
Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
B.
After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
C.
Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure
disorder.
D.
These persons may drive but never alone.
35. Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to
interferon. Which medication might help given IV once a month?
A.
Glatiramer acetate
B.
Natalizumab
C.
Fingolimod
D.
Glucocorticoids
36. The “freezing phenomenon” is a cardinal feature of:
A.
Parkinson’s disease
B.
Alzheimer’s disease
C.
A cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
D.
Bell’s palsy
37. A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known
as:
A.
Spinothalamic dysfunction
B.
Ratcheting
C.
Cogwheeling
D.
Hand tremors
38. Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with
a cognitive disturbance in either language, function, or perception?
A.
Guillain-Barré syndrome
B.
Parkinson’s disease
C.
Alzheimer’s disease
D.
Delirium
39. A score of 12 to 24 on this test indicates intermediate Alzheimer’s disease:
A.
SLUMS
B.
MoCA
C.
FAST
D.
MMSE
40. IV thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours
of symptom onset?
A.
1 hour
B.
3 hours
C.
6 hours
D.
12 hours
41. When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of
headache?
A.
Tension
B.
Migraine
C.
Cluster
D.
Stress
