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1. UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing.
a.
True
b.
False
2. IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets.
a.
True
b.
False
3. IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format.
a.
True
b.
False
4. TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection.
a.
True
b.
False
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5. The cost of upgrading infrastructure has been a major factor in the slow adoption of IPv6.
a.
True
b.
False
6. In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.
a.
True
b.
False
7. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an interior gateway protocol that uses a link-state algorithm.
a.
True
b.
False
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8. The Border Gateway Protocol is considered to be a hybrid routing protocol.
a.
True
b.
False
9. The pathping utility sends 10 pings per hop by default.
a.
True
b.
False
10. The CTRL + S key combination can be used to stop an actively running command.
a.
True
b.
False
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11. What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol?
a.
Connection-oriented Protocol
b.
Sequencing and checksums
c.
Framing
d.
Flow Control
12. What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an
incoming packet?
a.
Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
b.
Internet header length (IHL)
c.
Time to Live (TTL)
d.
Padding
13. What command will list only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers?
a.
show ip stats
b.
netstat -n
c.
netstat -s
d.
portstat
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14. What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system?
a.
mtr
b.
tracepath
c.
traceroute
d.
hping
15. Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate?
a.
BGP is limited to a single autonomous system.
b.
BGP is exclusively a distance-vector protocol.
c.
BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.
d.
BGP is a more advanced version of OSPF.
16. In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before
acknowledgment is received?
a.
urgent pointer
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b.
sliding-window
c.
URG flag
d.
PSH flag
17. Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?
a.
A router forwards broadcasts over the network.
b.
A router can reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but a second path is available.
c.
A router can interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing.
d.
A router can connect dissimilar networks.
18. The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?
a.
UDP
b.
ICMP
c.
TCP
d.
ARP
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19. You are connected to your network’s Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should
you enter?
a.
route print
b.
show ip route
c.
route -a
d.
show route-table
20. Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the
host srv1.mycompany.com?
a.
traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com
b.
traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com
c.
traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com
d.
traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com
21. What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field?
a.
It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle.
b.
It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during
transmission.
c.
It identifies the data segment’s position in the stream of data segments being sent.
d.
It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender.
22. What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?
a.
The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.
b.
The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network.
c.
The router resets the TTL to 128.
d.
The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop.
23. In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple
destinations a packet belongs to?
a.
traffic class
b.
group ID
c.
flow label
d.
traffic exchange
24. What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?
a.
It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.
b.
It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize that a change has occurred.
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c.
It is the amount of time it takes after initial configuration of the protocol for all routes to become
known.
d.
It is the amount of time involved in configuration of the routing protocol.
25. Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to
independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols?
a.
interior gateway protocols
b.
border gateway protocols
c.
distance vector protocols
d.
link-state protocols
26. Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-
state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?
a.
IS–IS
b.
BGP
c.
OSPF
d.
EIGRP
27. You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which
consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?
a.
EIGRP will increase CPU utilization on core routers.
b.
Increased traffic will result from the switch to EIGRP.
c.
EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.
d.
Convergence time will be increased with EIGRP.
28. What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic?
a.
tcpdump port 22
b.
tcpdump -p 22
c.
tcpdump only ssh
d.
tcpdump -f +ssh
29. Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to
protocol type?
a.
ipconfig -s
b.
netstat -s
c.
ipstat -a
d.
netstat –an
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30. When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can
take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable?
a.
8
b.
15
c.
20
d.
32
31. What occurs when a collision happens on a network?
a.
The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues.
b.
The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a
result.
c.
Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit.
d.
Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.
32. You have been tasked with maintaining a network that is jumbo frame enabled. What does this mean?
a.
The MTU for the network can be as high as 9198 bytes.
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b.
The network is not based on the Ethernet standard.
c.
Fragmented frames will be consolidated into whole frames before being sent.
d.
The MTU for the network is set at 65,535 bytes.
33. What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?
a.
flow label
b.
next header
c.
hop limit
d.
distance vector
34. If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size?
a.
1492 bytes
b.
1500 bytes
c.
1518 bytes
d.
1522 bytes
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35. By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network?
a.
1492 bytes
b.
1500 bytes
c.
1518 bytes
d.
1522 bytes
36. What routing metric affects a path’s potential performance due to delay?
a.
theoretical bandwidth
b.
MTU
c.
latency
d.
load
37. Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol?
a.
OSPF maintains a database of other routers’ links.
b.
OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path.
c.
OSPF provides low network overhead.
d.
OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.
38. Originally codified by ISO, what does the “intermediate system” in IS–IS (Intermediate System to
Intermediate System) stand for?
a.
The autonomous systems used by an organization.
b.
An entire network consisting of various network devices.
c.
The administrative boundaries of an organization.
d.
An IS–IS capable network router.
39. What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS
traceroute utility is accurate?
a.
Only tracert can send UDP messages for tracing a path.
b.
By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP
SYN messages.
c.
The Windows tracert utility does not place limits on the TTL of repeated trial messages.
d.
The tracert utility expects an ICMP port unreachable error message as the final reply to a trace.
40. In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is
accurate?
a.
The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any
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other devices.
b.
The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved.
c.
The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.
d.
The network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic.
41. How does IPv6 utilize Neighbor Discovery Protocol to detect neighboring devices?
42. What are the different categories of routers, and how do they compare?
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43. How are routing paths determined?
44. What are some examples of routing metrics that can be used to determine the best path for a network?
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45. There are several interior gateway protocols, but only one current exterior gateway protocol. What is this
protocol, and what characteristics does it have?
46. How can a network switch be said to operate at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
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47. What are some of the basic functions of a network router?
48. ARP tables might contain two different types of entries. What are they, and how are they created?
49. How is the TTL (Time to Live) field utilized in IPv4?
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50. What is MAC address spoofing?