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1. WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area
on a single network.
a.
True
b.
False
2. In a frame relay WAN, the ISP typically has the data circuit terminating equipment (DCE).
a.
True
b.
False
3. An 802.11ac signal can travel for approximately 2 miles from the source.
a.
True
b.
False
4. In a public switched telephone network, lines are terminated at the central office.
a.
True
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b.
False
5. DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range.
a.
True
b.
False
6. DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns.
a.
True
b.
False
7. Although MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, it is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like
those designed for WANs.
a.
True
b.
False
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Class:
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8. Most satellites circle the Earth 22,300 miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit.
a.
True
b.
False
9. CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is an open standard that is accepted and used worldwide.
a.
True
b.
False
10. The word “synchronous” as used in the name of Synchronous Optical Network means that data being
transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme.
a.
True
b.
False
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11. What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection?
a.
1.544 Mbps
b.
3.152 Mbps
c.
44.736 Mbps
d.
274.176 Mbps
12. Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels?
a.
1
b.
12
c.
24
d.
64
13. In an ISDN connection, what amount of throughput did a single B channel provide?
a.
32 Kbps
b.
48 Kbps
c.
64 Kbps
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d.
96 Kbps
14. What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?
a.
48 bytes
b.
53 bytes
c.
64 bytes
d.
84 bytes
15. Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit?
a.
You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract
b.
You pay only for the bandwidth you require.
c.
The paths that your data will take are always known.
d.
Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology.
16. Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?
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a.
ADSL
b.
VDSL
c.
SDSL
d.
G.Lite
17. The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below?
a.
CSU/DSU
b.
cable modem
c.
DSL modem
d.
ISDN modem
18. What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals,
universities, or other major enterprises?
a.
OC-3
b.
OC-12
c.
OC-48
d.
OC-96
19. The C-Band utilized by satellites consists of what frequency range?
a.
1.5 – 2.7 GHz
b.
2.7 – 3.5 GHz
c.
3.4 – 6.7 GHz
d.
12 – 18 GHz
20. In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?
a.
Metro Carrier Transport
b.
Carrier Ethernet Transport
c.
Intra-city Ethernet
d.
Ethernet SONET
21. Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate?
a.
Modems that utilize the DOCSIS 3.0 or 3.1 standard are backward compatible with older DOCSIS
networks.
b.
DOCSIS 3.1 allows for full duplex speeds up to 10 Gbps.
c.
Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model.
d.
Cable broadband provides a dedicated and continuous connection.
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22. The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs
to create multiple channels?
a.
wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)
b.
frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
c.
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM)
d.
time division multiplexing (TDM)
23. On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined?
a.
Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before
transmission.
b.
Data is transmitted, and then the path taken will vary depending on the load encountered at each
ATM participant node.
c.
A frame relay route table establishes each hop that will be taken to a single destination.
d.
When data is ready to be transmitted, an ATM participating router will contact the destination ATM
router, establish a tunnel, then pass the data.
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24. What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then
terminated after the transmission is complete?
a.
permanent virtual circuit (PVC)
b.
switched virtual circuit (SVC)
c.
dynamic virtual circuit (DVC)
d.
looping virtual circuit (LVC)
25. Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather
traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone?
a.
SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)
b.
T-carrier (T1s, fractional T1s, and T3s)
c.
Carrier-Ethernet Transport (CET)
d.
digital subscriber line (DSL)
26. Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame?
a.
between the layer 3 header and the data payload
b.
between the data payload and the layer 2 trailer
c.
between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header
d.
at the end of the layer 2 trailer
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27. What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for?
a.
It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network.
b.
It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination.
c.
It is used by ATM switches to determine how to create a switched virtual circuit.
d.
It is a locally significant ID used to send connectionless information.
28. Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate?
a.
In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data.
b.
ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission.
c.
ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions.
d.
ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching.
29. The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a
channel?
a.
frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
b.
wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)
c.
dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)
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d.
time division multiple access (TDMA)
30. When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate?
a.
Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps.
b.
Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.
c.
Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients.
d.
Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps.
31. Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA, how are various calls using
this technology kept separate?
a.
The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished.
b.
The packets include the end user’s SIM IMEI in each packet.
c.
The sending and receiving of data is performed on different frequencies. Users hop between these
frequencies to avoid interference.
d.
The transmissions are encrypted, such that only the appropriate device can decrypt its own call.
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32. Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses, and is equivalent to 100 T1s?
a.
OC-1
b.
OC-3
c.
OC-12
d.
OC-24
33. With a SIP trunk, what is the only limitation on the number of calls that can run at any one time?
a.
The maximum number of channels available on the transmission medium.
b.
The total number of time division slots allocated to the SIP client organization.
c.
The total number of SIP bearer channels provisioned on the SIP switch.
d.
The amount of available bandwidth.
34. In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel?
a.
Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
b.
Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
c.
Bearer Rate Interface (BRI)
d.
Dedicated Rate Interface (DRI)
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35. In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop?
a.
It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU.
b.
It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility.
c.
It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office.
d.
It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.
36. Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps?
a.
ADSL2+
b.
VDSL
c.
HDSL
d.
SDSL
37. When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
16
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38. A fractional T1’s bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate?
a.
28 Kbps
b.
32 Kbps
c.
48 Kbps
d.
64 Kbps
39. In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to?
a.
They connect directly to the central office.
b.
They connect to a mobile switching center.
c.
They connect to other wireless base stations, then to the central office.
d.
They connect to a wireless station repeater.
40. How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite?
a.
8 to 16
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b.
16 to 24
c.
24 to 32
d.
32 to 48
41. List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
42. How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
43. What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE?
44. The NIU (network interface unit) or NID (network interface device) at the ISP’s demarc serves what
purpose?
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Class:
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45. Describe the Synchronous Optical Network standard.
46. What is the MPLS standard, and why is it often used by ISPs to move traffic from one customer site to
another?
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Date:
47. How is ATM able to guarantee a specific QoS for certain types of transmissions?
48. Describe the HSPA+ (High Speed Packet Access Plus) and LTE (Long Term Evolution) cellular networking
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49. What is the role of a multiplexer when working with T-carrier lines?
50. All ISDN connections were based on what two different types of channels?