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True / False
1. Servers that have a NOS installed require less memory, processing power, and storage capacity than clients
because servers are called on to handle only light processing loads and requests from multiple clients.
a.
True
b.
False
2. The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network
and a router belongs to two or more local networks.
a.
True
b.
False
3. After a problem and its symptoms have been identified, a theory regarding a probable cause should be
established.
a.
True
b.
False
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4. Static electricity is an electrical charge in motion.
a.
True
b.
False
5. The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data.
a.
True
b.
False
6. The term firmware refers to programs embedded into hardware devices. This software only changes when a
firmware upgrade is performed.
a.
True
b.
False
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7. The Data Link layer attaches a trailer to the end of a packet, and does not include a header.
a.
True
b.
False
8. The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address.
a.
True
b.
False
9. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered to be a connectionless, or best-effort delivery
protocol.
a.
True
b.
False
10. In general, an API (application programming interface) call is the method an application uses when it makes
a request of the OS.
a.
True
b.
False
11. HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?
a.
Layer 4
b.
Layer 5
c.
Layer 6
d.
Layer 7
12. What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages
don’t arrive intact at the receiving application?
a.
Application Layer
b.
Presentation Layer
c.
Session Layer
d.
Transport Layer
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13. The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)?
a.
packet
b.
data
c.
bit
d.
frame
14. What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network?
a.
The message is discarded and must be sent again.
b.
The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data.
c.
The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).
d.
An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission.
15. What is a defining characteristic of a bus topology based network?
a.
Devices are connected to two adjacent devices, and communication priority is granted by a token.
b.
Devices are connected directly to a centralized networking device, known as a network switch.
c.
Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line.
d.
Devices are directly attached to a network router, which forwards data to intended destinations.
16. If your network consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch, what
type of topology is being used?
a.
bus topology
b.
star topology
c.
star bus topology
d.
mesh topology
17. The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of
the following options?
a.
Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP)
b.
Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS)
c.
Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS)
d.
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
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18. A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of
policy?
a.
fail-open
b.
fail-close
c.
fail-tolerant
d.
fail-oriented
19. An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure
system?
a.
fail-open
b.
fail-close
c.
fail-tolerant
d.
fail-dynamic
20. At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?
a.
Layer 2
b.
Layer 3
c.
Layer 4
d.
Layer 5
21. Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
a.
They lack scalability.
b.
They are not necessarily secure.
c.
They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers.
d.
They centralize user account logins.
22. At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?
a.
Application
b.
Session
c.
Transport
d.
Network
23. In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those
of the Presentation layer?
a.
The Presentation layer describes the interface between two applications, each on separate computers.
b.
The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way
that the application on the receiving end can read.
c.
The Presentation layer is responsible for describing how data between applications is synced and
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recovered if messages don’t arrive intact at the receiving application.
d.
The Presentation layer is responsible for transporting Application layer payloads from one
application to another.
24. Which of the following is an example of encapsulation?
a.
The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.
b.
The subtraction of a header from data inherited from the layer below in the OSI model.
c.
The modification of headers from a higher layer in the OSI model.
d.
The addition of a trailer to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.
25. What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?
a.
POP3
b.
IMAP4
c.
SMTP
d.
HTTPS
26. What is the most popular web server application?
a.
Microsoft Internet Information Services
b.
NGINX
c.
Lighttpd
d.
Apache
27. The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model?
a.
Application
b.
Presentation
c.
Transport
d.
Network
28. The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs.
What is another name for this address?
a.
MAC (Media Access Control) address
b.
DAC (Data Access Control) address
c.
DAC (Digital Access Control) address
d.
PAC (Packet Access Control) address
29. In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely?
a.
Application
b.
Network
c.
Physical
d.
Data Link
30. What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace?
a.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b.
Workplace Safety and Hazard Administration (WSHA)
c.
Office Safety and Standards Department (OSSD)
d.
Hazardous Materials and Safety Management (HMSM)
31. What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component?
a.
5 volts
b.
10 volts
c.
100 volts
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d.
1500 volts
32. When dealing with static electricity, what kind of failure caused by static discharge shortens the life of a
component, and can cause intermittent errors?
a.
catastrophic failure
b.
interrupting failure
c.
upset failure
d.
temporary failure
33. In the TCP/IP model, what layer combines the responsibilities of the Application, Presentation, and Session
layers from the OSI model?
a.
Application
b.
Internet
c.
Transport
d.
Link
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34. What occurs if a network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its
network?
a.
The protocol will notify a network router capable of receiving the packet, and a new path will be
used to the destination.
b.
The protocol will send an ICMP message to the destination, requesting a larger packet size be
allowed.
c.
The packet will be dropped silently, requiring the communicating application try again.
d.
The packet will be divided into smaller packets using fragmentation.
35. In a fire suppression system, what term is used to describe what is typically a foaming chemical, gas, or
water that is sprayed everywhere to put out a fire?
a.
fire extinction agent
b.
fire suppression agent
c.
extinguishing medium
d.
eliminating factor
36. In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level?
a.
Any U.S. state or territory
b.
The Federal Bureau of Investigation
c.
The President
d.
Local law enforcement
37. What is assigned to each node on a network, which is then used by the Network layer to uniquely identify
the node?
a.
MAC address
b.
IP address
c.
port address
d.
autonomous system address
38. What Application layer protocol can be used to monitor and gather information about network traffic and
can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention?
a.
HTTP
b.
POP3
c.
SNMP
d.
SMTP
39. The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted
transmissions?
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a.
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
b.
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
c.
Secure Shell (SSH)
d.
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
40. In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and
get access to resources is managed by what service?
a.
Active Directory Federated Users (AD FU)
b.
Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
c.
Automated Directory Network Services (AD NS)
d.
Windows Named Resource Services (WN RS)
Subjective Short Answer
41. What are the differences between the POP3 and IMAP4 protocols?
42. What are some of the typical elements that might be present in a fire suppression system, and what do they
do?
43. What is the difference between a WAN, MAN, CAN, and a PAN?
44. What are some of the tasks for which a network operating system is responsible?
45. What is a remote application, and how can remote applications be implemented on Windows Server?
46. Explain the differences between a physical topology and a logical topology.
47. Describe how the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) differ from
each other, and provide examples of where each might be used.
48. How can you prevent damage to a component prior to touching it?
49. What are some general OSHA guidelines to use when using power (electric) tools or other hand tools in the
workplace?
50. Explain the two different categories of Application layer protocols, and then detail the PDU used at this
layer.
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