A legitimate use of employee attitude survey data is to:
A) identify employees that should be terminated.
B) decide what employee privileges to reduce.
C) monitor the state of certain employee subgroups.
D) evaluate the firm’s performance appraisal system.
Sam was born in 1963. What is the earliest age that Sam can retire to receive full Social
Security benefits?
A) 65
B) 66
C) 67
D) 68
Which of the following is a true statement about EAP programs?
A) The majority of EAP referrals are made by supervisors.
B) Employment laws require firms to have EAP programs.
C) Employees cannot be terminated if they participate in EAP programs.
D) Employees are more likely to use on-site instead of off-site EAP programs.
Which of the following is most likely a benefit of employee separations for employers?
A) Employees are grouped into teams.
B) The workforce becomes more homogenous.
C) Surviving employees work more conscientiously.
D) They open doors for promotion within the company.
The goal-setting theory of motivation suggests that employee satisfaction and
motivation are functions of:
A) company policies and the relationships formed with co-workers.
B) clear, direct goals over which the employee has control.
C) employee abilities, goals, and job characteristics.
D) the core characteristics of the job.
Carson is gathering information for an HR audit. With which of the following areas
should he be concerned?
A) Work teams
B) Turnover rate
C) Available technology
D) Employee interdependence
When it comes to the performance appraisal process:
A) it is most commonly conducted twice a year.
B) most firms fail to maximize its potential.
C) most firms use a team-based appraisal.
D) it is rarely used by most businesses.
Betty wants to understand the company’s family leave policy prior to requesting leave
from her supervisor. Betty’s first source for information should most likely be the:
A) employee relations representative.
B) employee handbook.
C) company newsletter.
D) company bulletin board.
The costs of employee separations primarily depend upon which of the following?
A) Whether the employee was a member of a protected class or not
B) Whether the employee had a voluntary separation
C) Whether the employee will be replaced or not
D) Whether the employee was a new hire
The benefits portion of a compensation package most likely plays an important role in:
A) rewarding employees’ performance.
B) attracting and retaining employees.
C) managing the profits of the company.
D) managing employee performance.
Union substitution and union suppression are two types of ________ strategies.
A) union organization
B) collective bargaining
C) union avoidance
D) decertification
Nepotism is the practice of:
A) making information available to decision makers.
B) favoring relatives over others in the workplace.
C) communicating through nonverbal means.
D) dating and marrying co-workers.
Disability income under Social Security:
A) covers all hospital expenses for anyone over age 65.
B) requires 50% disablement for six weeks prior to the beginning of benefits.
C) does not take effect until the individual is over age 65.
D) comes in monthly payments equivalent to 30% of the individual’s earnings.
What is the most likely problem with asking applicants about their hobbies and club
memberships?
A) This is too familiar a question to be appropriate in a job interview.
B) Information may be given that indicates the applicant’s race, sex, or religion.
C) The information could be used for commercial purposes by those with data access.
D) Such questions tend to encourage reverse discrimination and adverse impact on
minorities.
Which of the following is LEAST associated with the failure of individual-based
pay-for-performance systems?
A) Performance appraisals are used for only one purpose.
B) Supervisors manipulate employee ratings.
C) Managers and employees disagree on the evaluation.
D) The job is primarily knowledge-based.
Companies use flexible benefits programs in order to:
A) simplify benefits administration.
B) give employees options to select the benefits most meaningful to them.
C) motivate employees to higher productivity and quality by rewarding performance.
D) give management options in selecting benefits to offer employees, which lowers the
cost of the benefits program.
Additional Case 16.2
John is the newly hired director of HR at Richmond Manufacturing, and he is in the
process of learning about the firm’s HR policies and procedures and determining what
areas need improvement. John learns from his staff that the firm’s workers’
compensation rates have risen dramatically in recent years due to rising claims. The
firm has not received any OSHA citations, and most claims have been related to
employee mistakes. Many HR staff members suspect that burnout, substance abuse, and
depression are the primary causes of worksite accidents at Richmond. Although
Richmond established a safety program two years ago, workplace accidents continue to
occur at a significant rate. John is considering the idea of establishing an EAP at
Richmond.
Refer to Additional Case 16.2. Which of the following best supports the idea that many
workplace accidents at Richmond are caused by burnout, substance abuse, and
depression?
A) Turnover at Richmond is low for the industry.
B) Domestic violence is a problem for many Richmond employees.
C) Richmond has a high rate of absenteeism among its employees.
D) Most Richmond employees do not participate in the wellness program.
Which of the following has improved the ability of firms to develop compensation
plans for expatriates?
A) Involvement of U.S. and foreign governments
B) Internet access to international pay surveys
C) Improved value of U.S. currency
D) Decline of the global economy
Firms that are low on uncertainty and change, and that operate in stable environments
would benefit most from HR strategies that involve:
A) variable pay and flexibility.
B) control emphasis and fixed pay.
C) external recruitment and an informal hiring process.
D) low dependency on superiors and tailored appraisal procedures.
Career development is best defined as a:
A) one-time event or opportunity to enhance long-term skills.
B) formal, organized, ongoing effort to develop people skills.
C) highly selective process which guarantees success.
D) process that focuses on immediate job requirements.