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155) Status in the Maslow hierarchy of needs is an example of a ________ need.
A) self-actualization
B) personal
C) social
D) safety
E) physiological
156) Friendship in the Maslow hierarchy of needs is an example of a ________ need.
A) self-actualization
B) personal
C) social
D) safety
E) physiological
157) Food in the Maslow hierarchy of needs is an example of a ________ need.
A) self-actualization
B) personal
C) social
D) safety
E) physiological
158) The Maslow ________ is based on the idea that motivation comes from a need.
A) motivation for preservation
B) products pyramid
C) hierarchy of needs
D) ladder of effects
E) psychosocial influences
159) A college education would satisfy needs at what level of the Maslow hierarchy?
A) physiological
B) self-actualization
C) personal
D) safety
E) social
160) Staying at a luxury hotel would satisfy needs at what two levels of the Maslow hierarchy?
A) physiological and self-actualization
B) self-actualization and social
C) personal and physiological
D) safety and social
E) social and personal
161) Chanel No. 5 fragrances would satisfy needs at what level of the Maslow hierarchy of
needs?
A) physiological
B) self-actualization
C) personal
D) safety
E) social
162) A bike helmet would be considered part of what level of the Maslow hierarchy of needs?
A) physiological
B) self-actualization
C) personal
D) safety
E) social
163) An apartment would satisfy needs at what level of the Maslow hierarchy?
A) physiological
B) self-actualization
C) personal
D) safety
E) social
164) A person's consistent behaviors or responses to recurring situations is referred to as
A) motivation.
B) core values.
C) culture.
D) perception.
E) personality.
165) Personality refers to
A) the attitudes that determine how people spend their time and resources and what they consider
important.
B) the way people see themselves and others.
C) the process by which an individual selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a
meaningful ideal self.
D) a person's consistent behaviors or responses to recurring situations.
E) those qualities that either attract or repel other members of a person's personal, social, or
professional environment.
166) Which of the following statements about personality is most accurate?
A) Personality is dynamic and typically changes several times as a person matures.
B) Most personality traits are inherited or formed at an early age.
C) Personality is the energizing force that makes consumer behavior purposeful.
D) Most personality traits are formed during adulthood and don't change thereafter.
E) The personality trait known as introversion has been associated with impulsive buying.
167) Enduring characteristics within a person or in his or her relationship with others are
referred to as
A) a key trait.
B) a persona.
C) a self-concept.
D) a core value.
E) an ideal self.
168) Compliance and aggression are ________ that have implications for a consumer's
purchasing behavior.
A) personality traits
B) personas
C) self-concepts
D) core values
E) needs
169) The way people see themselves and the way they believe others see them is referred to as
A) self-evaluation.
B) self-concept.
C) self-actualization.
D) individualized perception.
E) personal perception.
170) Self-concept refers to
A) the degree to which a person is influenced by situational influences.
B) the need for personal fulfillment.
C) the way people see themselves and the way they believe others see them.
D) the degree to which a person trusts his or her own judgment in a purchase situation.
E) the degree to which a person is influenced by sociocultural influences.
171) Marketers recognize that people have an actual self-concept and
A) a persona determined by their peers.
B) a persona determined by psychology.
C) an abstract self-concept.
D) an ideal self-concept.
E) a deconstructed self-concept.
172) When the state of Virginia touts the slogan "Virginia is for Lovers," it is trying to appeal to
people's ________ in order to attract them as potential residents, part of its workforce, or
vacationers.
A) self-concept
B) individualized perception
C) self-evaluation
D) self-actualization
E) personal perception
173) The process by which an individual selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a
meaningful picture of the world is referred to as
A) motivation.
B) attitude formation.
C) learning.
D) perception.
E) a self-concept.
174) Perception refers to
A) a person's consistent behaviors or responses to recurring situations.
B) a learned predisposition to respond to an object or class of objects in a consistently favorable
or unfavorable way.
C) the process by which an individual selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a
meaningful picture of the world.
D) seeing or hearing messages without being aware of them.
E) the way people see themselves and the way they believe others see them.
175) A filtering of exposure, comprehension, and retention is called
A) selective attention.
B) selective perception.
C) selective intuition.
D) selective retention.
E) stimulus discrimination.
176) Because the average consumer operates in a complex environment, the human brain
attempts to organize and interpret information with a process referred to as
A) selective retention.
B) selective attention.
C) selective exposure.
D) selective perception.
E) stimulus discrimination.
177) A palindrome is a word or phrase that reads the same whether read from the right or from
the left (e.g., madam). Originally, Marshall had never recalled hearing the term. However, when
he read about palindromes for his English class, he saw three examples of the term within a
matter of days. This is most likely the result of
A) selective retention.
B) selective attention.
C) selective intuition.
D) stimulus discrimination.
E) selective perception.
178) The tendency to pay attention to messages consistent with one's attitudes and beliefs and to
ignore messages that are inconsistent with them is referred to as
A) selective retention.
B) selective comprehension.
C) selective exposure.
D) selective perception.
E) stimulus discrimination.
179) ________ often occurs in the postpurchase stage of the consumer decision process, when
consumers notice and read advertisements for the brand they just bought as evidence to support
their decision.
A) Selective retention
B) Selective comprehension
C) Selective exposure
D) Selective perception
E) Stimulus discrimination
180) Because Marla was so strongly committed to a fat-free diet, she did not bother to read a
recent report by the New England Journal of Medicine suggesting that some fat in our diet is
healthy. The report was in a newspaper that Marla reads daily, but the headline did not appeal to
her as the result of
A) selective retention.
B) selective comprehension.
C) selective exposure.
D) selective perception.
E) stimulus discrimination.
181) Interpreting information so that it is consistent with one's attitudes and beliefs is referred to
as
A) selective retention.
B) selective comprehension.
C) selective exposure.
D) selective analysis.
E) stimulus discrimination.
182) Prexa was offended by the brand name of a new product for women. She believed the name
of the product was demeaning and that it reflected a negative attitude of the manufacturer
toward women in general. Although this may simply be the result of ________, if other women
interpreted the name choice the same way, it is likely this product would fail.
A) selective retention
B) selective comprehension
C) selective exposure
D) selective analysis
E) stimulus discrimination
183) As a result of ________, consumers do not remember all the information they see, read, or
hear, even minutes after exposure to it.
A) selective retention
B) selective comprehension
C) selective exposure
D) selective perception
E) subliminal discrimination
184) Selective retention most negatively impacts which stage of the consumer purchase decision
process?
A) information search
B) purchase decision
C) alternative evaluation
D) postpurchase behavior
E) problem recognition
185) Retailers can reduce problems associated with selective retention by
A) hiring well-known celebrities to sponsor their products.
B) adding more end-aisle and other point-of-purchase displays throughout the store.
C) providing brochures for consumers to take home.
D) adopting advertising campaigns that use bright colors and a new selection of popular
background music.
E) offering extended service warranties.
186) If you read the chapters from your marketing textbook the night before this test and still
could not remember several of the definitions for marketing terms, you may be experiencing
A) selective retention.
B) selective comprehension.
C) selective exposure.
D) selective perception.
E) subliminal perception.
187) The process of seeing or hearing messages without being aware of them is referred to as
A) selective retention.
B) subliminal perception.
C) selective perception.
D) selective attention.
E) indifference.
188) Subliminal perception refers to
A) the process of seeing or hearing messages without being aware of them.
B) a person's innate ability to read nonverbal cues such as body language and facial expressions.
C) the ability of a person to understand the allegorical meanings behind words, sentences, or
paragraphs communicated in writing or speech.
D) the process of being brainwashed to the point of acting in a way that is contrary to or
inconsistent with one's normal behavior.
E) the inability of a person to communicate due to lack of background knowledge or experience.
189) A movie theater owner embedded brief messages during trailers before showing the feature
film. The messages, which flashed on the screen for such a short time that moviegoers were not
consciously aware of them, urged consumers to "Drink Coke" and to "Eat Popcorn," encouraging
them to visit the snack lobby. Research has shown what about such messages?
A) Selective perception overrides advertising messages.
B) Selective exposure is difficult for marketers to surmount.
C) Subliminal messages have limited effects on behavior.
D) Subliminal perception enables marketers to motivate consumers to take an action.
E) Subliminal messages were deemed illegal by the Federal Trade Commission at the time these
were shown in the movie theater.
190) Which of the following statements about subliminal perception is most accurate?
A) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) believes that subliminal perception can be
effective with a large majority of consumers.
B) Subliminal messages are illegal in the United States.
C) Subliminal messages are more effective now due to the advances in computer-generated
images in movies and TV programs.
D) About half of U.S. consumers think that subliminal messages can cause them to buy products
and services they don't want.
E) The use of subliminal messaging is monitored by the Better Business Bureau.
191) The book The Secret Sales Pitch: An Overview of Subliminal Advertising is about
subliminal messages, which reflect what kind of potential influence on the consumer decision
making process?
A) sociocultural
B) situational
C) psychological
D) acculturational
E) attitudinal
192) The anxiety felt because the consumer cannot anticipate the outcomes of a purchase but
believes there may be negative consequences is referred to as
A) a negative antecedent state.
B) perceived risk.
C) temporal uncertainty.
D) cognitive dissonance.
E) a positive precedent state.
193) Perceived risk is
A) an unmerited fear of being taken advantage of in an exchange situation.
B) the feeling of postpurchase psychological tension or anxiety that consumers may experience
when faced with two or more highly attractive alternatives.
C) the degree to which a seller is willing to make an exchange based upon a customer's
creditworthiness.
D) the personal, social, and economic significance of the purchase to the consumer.
E) the anxiety felt because the consumer cannot anticipate the outcomes of a purchase but
believes there may be negative consequences.
194) The fear of physical harm, a large financial outlay required to buy the product, fear of poor
product performance, and fear of disapproval from friends can all contribute to
A) consumer angst.
B) cognitive dissonance.
C) purchase anxiety.
D) perceived risk.
E) consumer cynicism.
