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1. The process of choosing individuals with the correct qualifications needed to fill jobs in an organization is called
_____.
a.
orientation
b.
selection
c.
benchmarking
d.
attrition
ANSWER:
b
2. The ultimate purpose of selection is _____, or fitting a person to the right job.
a.
placement
b.
orientation
c.
outsourcing
d.
remuneration
ANSWER:
a
3. Placement of people in an organization can be seen primarily as a(n) _____.
a.
public relations activity
b.
operating management responsibility
c.
matching process
d.
marketing tool
ANSWER:
c
4. Unlike concurrent validity, predictive validity:
a.
involves comparing applicants’ test results with their subsequent job performance.
b.
uses current employees to validate a predictor or test.
c.
involves testing former employees and correlating the scores with their performance ratings.
d.
involves administering a predictor test to applicants and using the results to make hiring decisions.
ANSWER:
a
5. Mark is unhappy with his new job as a First-Line Supervisor at a call center. Mark finds the job boring and longs for
the end of his shift every day. He wants to apply for another job either within or outside the organization. This best
exemplifies _____.
a.
a realistic job preview
b.
burnout
c.
job enlargement
d.
a poor person/job fit
ANSWER:
d
6. Voltra Inc. is planning to fill a number of openings for entry-level professionals. The selection process is quite
extensive and includes several levels of individual interviews, panel interviews, psychological tests, and general ability
tests. Much of the interview time is spent on understanding the applicants’ philosophy of life and work. Given this
information, which of the following statements is most likely true of Voltra?
a.
Voltra wants to check the applicants’ credit histories.
b.
Voltra is using polygraphs for pre-employment screening purposes.
c.
Voltra is concerned about person/organization fit.
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d.
Voltra wants to prevent negligent hiring lawsuits.
ANSWER:
c
7. Danica graduated from college during a severe economic recession. She then accepted a job as a trainer for a major
national bank. Danica was one of the top candidates when she was hired by the bank. Three months into her job, she
began to feel like she did not belong there because her values did not align with those of the company. This best
exemplifies _____.
a.
a poor person/organization fit
b.
a realistic job preview
c.
negligent hiring
d.
job enlargement
ANSWER:
a
8. Ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness are _____.
a.
elements of job performance
b.
selection criteria
c.
predictors of selection criteria
d.
contract clauses
ANSWER:
b
9. Measurable or visible indicators of selection criteria are called _____.
a.
reliable estimators
b.
predictors
c.
realistic job previews
d.
scalars
ANSWER:
b
10. Mary, an HR Recruiter for Aurora Borealis Lighting Inc., decides to hire an individual who has the ability to learn on
the job. The company estimates that it will be two years before the new hire will be fully productive. Consequently, it is
looking to hire a person who will be with the company for at least four years. Mary suggests that the company hire only
those applicants who have been with their previous employers for at least two years and have not changed jobs too
frequently. Mary’s suggestion best exemplifies a(n) _____.
a.
observation interview
b.
summary dismissal
c.
realistic job preview
d.
predictor of selection criteria
ANSWER:
d
11. In the context of the qualities of selection predictors, validity refers to:
a.
the strength of the correlation between a test score and a predictor.
b.
the consistency with which a predictor actually tests the desired construct.
c.
the extent to which a test or measure repeatedly produces the same results over time.
d.
the extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure.
ANSWER:
d
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12. Which of the following statements is true of concurrent validity?
a.
Concurrent validity is difficult to assess because employees are not always readily available and cannot take
the predictor test immediately.
b.
Concurrent validity is measured when applicants’ test results are compared with subsequent job performance.
c.
Concurrent validity is measured when an employer tests current employees and correlates the scores with their
performance ratings on appraisals.
d.
Concurrent validity is disadvantageous in that it increases the time needed to complete a validation study.
ANSWER:
c
13. The HR Manager at Fresh Foods instructs his subordinates to make a list of all employees who have completed about
one year in the firm. He wants his subordinates to collect the test scores obtained by these employees when they applied
for the job and compare these scores to their job performance over the past year. In this scenario, the HR Manager most
likely wants to conduct a(n) _____.
a.
internal validity test
b.
concurrent validity test
c.
face validity test
d.
predictive validity test
ANSWER:
d
14. _____ is the extent to which a test or measure repeatedly produces the same results over time.
a.
Reliability
b.
Validity
c.
Variability
d.
Predictability
ANSWER:
a
15. In the _____ approach for combining predictors, a minimum cutoff is set on each predictor and each minimum level
must be “passed.”
a.
universal predictor
b.
compensatory
c.
multiple hurdles
d.
matching
ANSWER:
c
16. Marcus wants to become a firefighter in Redville. The physical requirements to qualify for the position of firefighter
in Redville are rigorous, and applicants must pass several ability tests to be selected. Marcus has a hearing impairment,
and this impairment alone causes him to be disqualified. He passes all the other physical and written tests that were
conducted earlier. This scenario best exemplifies _____.
a.
the compensatory approach to selection
b.
summary dismissal
c.
discrimination under the Judiciary Act
d.
the multiple hurdles approach of combining predictors
ANSWER:
d
17. How does the compensatory approach combine predictors?
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a.
A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor.
b.
A higher score on one predictor offsets a lower score on another.
c.
The highest predictor score for all test takers is used to set an average cutoff.
d.
Multiple hurdles are set to compensate for the different predictors.
ANSWER:
b
18. Which of the following is a self-management dimension of emotional intelligence?
a.
Inspirational leadership
b.
Self-confidence
c.
Empathy
d.
Optimism
ANSWER:
d
19. The purpose of _____ is to provide potential employees with an accurate introduction to a job so that they can better
evaluate the employment situation.
a.
job specialization
b.
a realistic job preview
c.
employee outplacement
d.
a job application
ANSWER:
b
20. What is the main purpose of pre-employment screening?
a.
To provide a realistic job preview to potential employees
b.
To identify applicants with arrest records and convictions
c.
To determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for job openings
d.
To obtain information for equal employment opportunity and affirmative action reports
ANSWER:
c
21. A new casino wants to hire about 1,000 employees for its new resort. Applicants are asked to complete an online
questionnaire that will later be analyzed using computer software. Only those applicants who have previously worked in
hotels and casinos will be considered eligible for the next step in the hiring process. This best exemplifies _____.
a.
a compensatory approach to selection
b.
job specialization
c.
a pre-employment screening process
d.
employee outplacement
ANSWER:
c
22. Which of the following is a purpose of an application form?
a.
It forms the basis for an organization’s affirmative action plans.
b.
It protects applicants from unjustifiable dismissal.
c.
It is a record of an employer’s desire to hire someone for an open position.
d.
It is a basic employee record for applicants who are hired.
ANSWER:
d
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23. _____ indicates the right of an employer or an employee to terminate employment at any time with or without notice
or cause (where applicable by state law).
a.
At-will employment
b.
Summary dismissal
c.
Due diligence
d.
Contingency employment
ANSWER:
a
24. Greta is the new HR Manager of a small company. The previous HR Manager kept every document he had access to
in the past 10 years of his job at the firm, but Greta is determined to clear out the unnecessary documents. In the context
of Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) requirements, Greta should keep all applications and hiring-
related documents and records for _____ before they can be discarded.
a.
one year
b.
three years
c.
five years
d.
seven years
ANSWER:
b
25. Sanjay, the new HR Manager at Charlemagne Tools Inc., examines the application form that the company has been
using for the last two years. According to the guidelines set by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and
various court decisions, which of the following is an illegal question on the application form?
a.
Will you be able to relocate for the job?
b.
Can you perform the duties of the job with reasonable accommodation?
c.
What is your main area of work expertise?
d.
Whom should we contact in case of emergency?
ANSWER:
d
26. In verifying the identities and credentials of job applicants, employers must use the revised form I-9 for each
employee hired and must _____.
a.
permit annual compliance audits of HR records by U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement agents
b.
send copies of all documents submitted by employees to the Immigration and Naturalization Service within 48
hours of hiring
c.
determine within 72 hours of hiring whether a job applicant is a U.S. citizen, registered alien, or illegal alien
d.
contact the Department of Homeland Security within 24 hours if a registered alien or an illegal alien applies
for a job in the transportation sector
ANSWER:
c
27. Mario, a recent college graduate, applied for a job with a firm that provides security to high-profile individuals.
During the selection process, he was given a test for visual memory. Tests such as these are best classified as:
a.
psychomotor ability tests.
b.
cognitive ability tests.
c.
formative tests.
d.
work sample tests.
ANSWER:
b
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28. _____ measure dexterity, hand–eye coordination, and arm–hand steadiness.
a.
Physical ability tests
b.
Work sample tests
c.
Aptitude tests
d.
Psychomotor tests
ANSWER:
d
29. Unlike psychomotor tests, work sample tests:
a.
require an applicant to perform a simulated task that is a specified part of the target job.
b.
measure an applicant’s dexterity, hand–eye coordination, arm–hand steadiness, and other factors.
c.
are primarily used for assembly line workers.
d.
are skill-based tests rather than situational tests.
ANSWER:
a
30. A typing test is an example of a _____ test.
a.
psychological
b.
systematic
c.
work sample
d.
physical ability
ANSWER:
c
31. A(n) _____ is a selection process composed of a series of evaluative tests during which candidates are evaluated by
multiple raters.
a.
situational judgment test
b.
assessment center
c.
panel interview
d.
job simulation
ANSWER:
b
32. A(n) _____ is a mechanical device that measures a person’s galvanic skin response, heart rate, and breathing rate.
a.
polygraph
b.
ammeter
c.
periscope
d.
voltmeter
ANSWER:
a
33. Kent and Julie are recruiters for Sunspree Inc. When both of them interview the same applicant, they often find that
they have different opinions about the applicant’s potential as a future high performer in the organization. Given this
information, it can be said that Kent and Julie have _____.
a.
low inter-rater reliability
b.
high inter-rater reliability
c.
high intra-rater reliability
d.
low intra-rater reliability
ANSWER:
a
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34. In a structured interview, _____.
a.
all candidates are interviewed by the same interviewer
b.
a set of prepared job-related questions are asked of all job applicants
c.
inter-rater reliability and consistency are low
d.
questions are designed to address all of the Big Five personality traits
ANSWER:
b
35. As opposed to unstructured interviews, structured interviews:
a.
require interviewers to improvise questions.
b.
reduce validity and increase bias.
c.
ensure greater consistency.
d.
result in low inter-rater reliability.
ANSWER:
c
36. A(n) _____ interview is more reliable and valid than other interview approaches.
a.
sequential
b.
nondirective
c.
unstructured
d.
structured
ANSWER:
d
37. Gerard, a job applicant, was asked by a company to appear for an interview. During the interview, Gerard spent most
of the time providing details about his education and work experience to the interviewer. This best exemplifies a _____.
a.
behavioral interview
b.
situational interview
c.
biographical interview
d.
nondirective interview
ANSWER:
c
38. Patrick, a job applicant, was asked by his interviewer, “In your previous job, how did you handle employees who were
poor performers?” Given this information, it can be said that Patrick most likely attended a:
a.
behavioral interview.
b.
biographical interview.
c.
nondirective interview.
d.
group interview.
ANSWER:
a
39. In her interview for the position of bartender in a luxury bar, Rosario was asked “What would you do if one of the
customers began making off-color jokes that other customers in the bar could hear?” Rosario most likely attended a(n)
_____.
a.
biographical interview
b.
nondirective interview
c.
situational interview
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d.
unstructured interview
ANSWER:
c
40. The selection process for hiring the assistant to the mayor of a large city includes giving the finalists three hypothetical
crisis scenarios. One deals with a terrorist threat at a sporting event, another deals with a plane crash at the airport, and the
third deals with a major earthquake. Each candidate must describe his or her approach to handling the crisis, which will be
recorded and evaluated by a panel. This best exemplifies a(n) _____.
a.
unstructured interview
b.
biographical interview
c.
nondirective interview
d.
situational interview
ANSWER:
d
41. Gisela had an interview with the Managing Editor of a prominent publisher. The interviewer asked her general
questions and then used her responses to form the next question. Given this scenario, it can be said that Gisela most likely
attended a _____.
a.
behavioral interview
b.
nondirective interview
c.
biographical interview
d.
situational interview
ANSWER:
b
42. Which of the following types of selection interviews is less structured than the others?
a.
A behavioral interview
b.
A situational interview
c.
A biographical interview
d.
A nondirective interview
ANSWER:
d
43. Anthony was interviewing an applicant for the position of volunteer guide at an art museum. During the course of the
interview, the applicant began to discuss her interest in introducing young children to art. Based on how the conversation
progressed, Anthony followed up with several questions about how young children react to art, why she felt early
exposure to art was important, and how she would design situations for children to experience art. Anthony was most
likely conducting a _____.
a.
behavioral interview
b.
nondirective interview
c.
biographical interview
d.
group interview
ANSWER:
b
44. Scenic River had an opening for the position of City Manager. This opening attracted many applicants from all over
the city. As part of the selection process, each applicant appeared one after another for the interview before the entire
Scenic River Board. This best exemplifies a _____.
a.
panel interview
b.
group interview
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c.
biographical interview
d.
situational interview
ANSWER:
a
45. The interior decorators, designers, and architects of WorldKraft Design work together in self-managing the company’s
work groups. This structure is key to the organization’s culture, and it is crucial that new hires be compatible with the
work group to which they are assigned. In this case, it would be best to use _____ to hire potential employees.
a.
multiple-hurdle interviews
b.
situational interviews
c.
biographical interviews
d.
team interviews
ANSWER:
d
46. The problem of _____ occurs when interviewers decide whether an applicant is suitable for a job within the first two
to four minutes of the interview and spend the rest of the time looking for evidence to support their decision.
a.
cultural noise
b.
snap judgment
c.
stereotyping
d.
negative emphasis
ANSWER:
b
47. Which of the following occurs when an interviewer allows a positive characteristic about a job applicant to
overshadow other evidence?
a.
The halo effect
b.
The horn effect
c.
Similarity bias
d.
Hindsight bias
ANSWER:
a
48. Which of the following occurs when interviewers favor or select people whom they believe to be like themselves on
the basis of a variety of personal factors?
a.
The halo effect
b.
Cultural noise
c.
Similarity bias
d.
The horn effect
ANSWER:
c
49. Which of the following is most likely a reason employers perform a thorough background check of all applicants?
a.
To comply with the Immigration and Naturalization Act
b.
To avoid résumé frauds
c.
To prevent discrimination against protected classes
d.
To protect the organization against charges of negligent hiring
ANSWER:
b
50. A school hired a bus driver without conducting a multistate criminal background check; the school conducted a
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background check only in the state in which it is located. Subsequently, the driver was convicted of kidnapping one of the
children who traveled in his bus. The prosecution in the case revealed that the driver had been convicted 10 years ago for
a similar case in another state. In this scenario, the school is guilty of _____.
a.
information falsification
b.
stereotyping
c.
compensatory hiring
d.
negligent hiring
ANSWER:
d
51. Chinn has been a bus driver for a tour bus company for the past 15 years and has an excellent driving record. He had a
back injury last year for which he is still undergoing treatment. If Chinn has an accident while driving one of the tour
buses because of the effects of his medication and passengers are injured in the accident, the company will most likely be
liable for _____.
a.
snap judgment
b.
negligent hiring
c.
negative emphasis
d.
negligent retention
ANSWER:
d
52. Identify a true statement about drug testing.
a.
Drug testing is widely used by employers as a selection tool.
b.
The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits the use of pre-employment drug testing.
c.
Drug testing is permissible as long as it is done as part of a medical exam rather than separately.
d.
Pre-employment drug tests are considered to be medical exams under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
ANSWER:
a
53. In the context of inquiries in the selection process, the Americans with Disabilities Act:
a.
does not permit the use of drug tests until a job has been conditionally offered.
b.
prohibits employers from hiring individuals because of drug use for medical or nonmedical purposes.
c.
allows the use of all types of pre-employment medical exams.
d.
does not consider pre-employment drug tests to be medical exams.
ANSWER:
d
54. Which of the following should be included in the job details section of an employment offer letter?
a.
Reporting relationships
b.
Paid time off
c.
Days and hours of work
d.
Employee costs
ANSWER:
a
55. In the context of medical examinations and inquiries in the selection process, which of the following is true of the
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
a.
The ADA prohibits a company from asking job applicants any question related to current or past medical
history until a conditional job offer has been made.
b.
Pre-employment drug tests are considered to be medical exams under the ADA.
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c.
The ADA authorizes the use of pre-employment medical exams before a job has been conditionally offered to
a job applicant.
d.
Hiring an individual because of drug use for treatment, medical, or nonmedical purposes violates the ADA.
ANSWER:
a
56. Conscientiousness is a predictor of selection criteria.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
57. Reliability refers to how well a test measures what it claims to measure.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
58. Aaron is attending a job interview. The interviewers find that his cognitive scores are quite low, but he has great
interpersonal skills. The interviewers decide to hire him and give him intensive training on their desk procedures. This is
an example of the compensatory approach for combining predictors of work performance.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
59. Generally, the higher the position being filled in an organization, the greater the likelihood that the ultimate hiring
decisions will be made by HR professionals rather than operating managers.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
60. Realistic job previews can enhance applicant trust in a potential employer.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
61. Courts have ruled that screening candidates based on information obtained from their social media and networking
profiles is legal and nondiscriminatory.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
62. It is illegal for employers to review and record potential employees’ identity documents such as Social Security cards
and passports.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
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63. According to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), if an applicant voluntarily furnishes some
information on a résumé that cannot be legally obtained, the employer should not use that information during the selection
process.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
64. The use of E-Verify is mandatory for government contractors and subcontractors, and several states require all public
and private employers to use this service.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
65. Ernest is applying for a job that will require him to carry heavy equipment. The employer tests his physical strength
and endurance during the selection process. This is an example of a psychomotor test.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
66. Jennifer has a minor hand tremor that affects her ability to write legibly. This would most likely lower Jennifer’s score
on the MacQuarie Test for Mechanical Ability.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
67. In the “Big Five” personality framework, Bob tested as creative, curious, and original. This implies that he is
extroverted.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
68. Honesty tests are inexpensive to administer, but they increase workers’ compensation claims.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
69. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act prohibits employers, including federal, state, and local government agencies,
from using polygraphs for pre-employment screening purposes.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
70. Structured interviews are less reliable than other interview approaches.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
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71. In a biographical interview, applicants are required to give specific examples of how they have handled a problem in
the past.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
72. In a nondirective interview, comparing and ranking candidates is less open to subjective judgments.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
73. Effective interviewers avoid listening responses such as nodding, pausing, making casual remarks, echoing, and
mirroring.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
74. Interviewers are legally allowed to ask applicants questions about their national origin and age but not about their race
and marital status.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
75. Employers can obtain background information from a variety of sources such as an applicant’s motor vehicle records
and military records.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
76. Negligent hiring occurs when an employer becomes aware that an employee may be unfit for employment but
continues to employ the person.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
77. The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits the use of drug tests until a job has been conditionally offered.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
78. Care should be taken to avoid vague, general statements in an offer letter.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
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79. Evidence indicates that the process of hiring employees is increasingly taking longer, with an average time of well
over three weeks for many positions and over two months for white-collar jobs.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
80. It is important for employers to emphasize job-related criteria when identifying selection instruments and evaluating
job candidates.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
81. Unless verifying specific information, an interviewer should avoid questions that can be answered “yes” or “no.”
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
82. Achievement tests attempt to measure potential, while aptitude tests attempt to measure demonstrated skill or
competence.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
False
83. Most of the litigation surrounding application forms has involved questions regarding the gender and age of a potential
employee, so special attention should be given to removing any items that relate to these personal characteristics.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
84. Under federal guidelines, any method of collecting information about job applicants that is used to make hiring
decisions is considered a test.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWER:
True
85. In the context of selection and placement, what is meant by the term mismatch?
ANSWER:
Lack of fit between a person’s KSAs (knowledge, skills, and abilities) and job requirements can be classified
as a mismatch. A mismatch results from poor pairing of a person’s needs, interests, skills, abilities, personality,
and expectations with characteristics of the job, available rewards, coworker relationships, and the
organizational culture. If an individual is poorly suited for a job and/or company, it is difficult to achieve
acceptable performance, and the hiring organization can incur many costs because of poor fit.
86. Explain the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory.
ANSWER:
The ASA theory is often used to better understand the concept of fit in companies. The ASA theory proposes
that job candidates are attracted to and selected by firms where similar types of individuals are employed, and
individuals who are very different quit their jobs to work elsewhere.
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87. List the activities involved in an organization’s talent acquisition function.
ANSWER:
The talent acquisition function in any organization may be concerned with some or all of the following
activities: receiving applications, interviewing the applicants, administering pre-employment tests, conducting
background screening, scheduling physical examinations, placing and assigning new hires, orienting and
onboarding new hires, conducting follow-up evaluations on new employees, conducting exit interviews with
departing employees, and maintaining appropriate records and reports.
88. What purposes do application forms serve?
ANSWER:
Properly prepared, an application form serves five purposes:
1. It is a record of the applicant’s desire to obtain a position.
2. It provides the interviewer with an applicant profile that can be addressed during the interview.
3. It is a basic employee record for applicants who are hired.
4. It can be used for research on the effectiveness of the selection process.
5. It is a formal document on which the applicant attests to the truthfulness of all information provided.
89. Describe situational judgment tests.
ANSWER:
Situational judgment tests are designed to measure a person’s judgment in work settings. The candidate is
given a scenario or case and a list of possible solutions to a problem and is required to make judgments about
how to deal with the situation. In this sense, situational judgment tests simulate the characteristics and
challenges of a job.
90. Why is inter-rater reliability important in selection interviews?
ANSWER:
Inter-rater reliability is important in selection interviews because several interviewers are often involved in
selecting employees from a pool of applicants.
91. How does an unstructured interview differ from a structured interview?
ANSWER:
An unstructured interview has ad lib generic questions, different questions for each candidate, no established
scoring key, untrained interviewers, and low reliability and validity. In contrast, a structured interview has pre–
planned job-specific questions, consistent questions for all candidates, established scoring key, trained
interviewers, and acceptable reliability and validity.
92. Identify the sources of job applicants’ background information.
ANSWER:
Background information can be obtained from a variety of sources, including past job records, credit history,
testing records, educational and certification records, drug tests, criminal history, sex offender lists, motor
vehicle records, and military records.
93. Why are medical examinations required in the selection process?
ANSWER:
Medical information about applicants may be used to determine their physical and mental abilities to perform
jobs. Physical standards for jobs should be realistic, justifiable, and linked to essential job requirements.
94. List four best practices when assessing long-term unemployed applicants.
ANSWER:
Four best practices when assessing long-term unemployed applicants are as follows:
1. Ensure that job advertisements do not discourage or discriminate against unemployed people.
2. Review screening procedures to ensure that unemployment status is not given inappropriate weight in hiring
decisions.
3. Proactively reach out to agencies and other groups that work with long-term unemployed candidates.
4. Share best practices within the employer community.
95. Describe the relationship among job performance, selection criteria, and predictors in the employee selection process.
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Guidelines from the EEOC and court decisions require that the data requested on application forms must be
ANSWER:
Effective selection of employees involves using selection criteria to predict future employee behavior. The
heart of an effective selection system is an understanding of what constitutes good job performance. Knowing
what good performance looks like in a particular job helps identify the qualities an employee must have to
achieve successful performance. These are called selection criteria. A selection criterion is a characteristic that
a person must possess to successfully perform job duties.
To determine whether candidates possess certain selection criteria (such as ability and motivation), employers
use predictors of selection criteria, which are measurable or visible indicators of those characteristics (or
criteria). Candidates who possess higher levels of these predictors would be expected to be better
performers. Choosing appropriate predictors is not an easy task, but if done well, the organization can make
better hiring decisions and improve overall performance. Prediction decisions aren’t perfect, so organizations
try to reduce the number of errors by using high-quality predictors.
96. What are the circumstances in which an employer needs to combine predictors? What are the two ways of combining
predictors?
ANSWER:
When an employer uses predictors such as three years of experience, a college degree, and acceptable aptitude
test score, job applicants are evaluated on all of these requirements and the multiple predictors must be
combined in some way. Two approaches for combining predictors are as follows:
• Multiple hurdles: A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor, and each minimum level must be
“passed.” For example, to be hired, a candidate for a sales representative job must achieve a minimum
education level, a certain score on a sales aptitude test, and a minimum score on a structured
interview.
• Compensatory approach: Scores from individual predictors are added and combined into an overall
score, thereby allowing a higher score on one predictor to offset, or compensate for, a lower score on
another. The combined index takes into consideration performance on all predictors. For example,
when making decisions about admitting students into graduate business programs, a higher overall
score on an admissions test might offset a lower undergraduate grade point average.
97. What disclaimers should application forms contain?
ANSWER:
Application forms typically include disclaimers and notices so that appropriate legal protections are clearly
stated. Recommended disclosures include the following:
• At-will employment: Indicates the right of the employer or the employee to terminate employment at
any time with or without notice or cause (where applicable by state law)
• Reference contacts: Requests permission to contact previous employers listed by the applicant on the
application form or résumé
• Employment testing: Notifies applicants of required drug tests, pencil-and-paper tests, physical exams,
or electronic or other tests that will be used in the employment decision
• Application time limit: Indicates how long application forms are active (typically six months) and that
individuals must reapply or reactivate their applications after that period
• Information falsification: Conveys to an applicant that falsification of application information can be
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and rely too much on gut instinct. Establishing both high intra-rater reliability (within the same interviewer)
and inter-rater reliability (across different interviewers) is difficult but can be achieved through the use of
structured interviews. Inter-rater reliability becomes important because several interviewers are often involved
• Marital status
• Height and weight
• Number and ages of dependents
• Information on spouse
• Date of high school graduation
• Emergency contact information
• Social Security number
Most of the litigation surrounding application forms has involved questions regarding the gender and age of a
potential employee, so special attention should be given to removing any items that relate to these personal
characteristics. Concerns about inappropriate questions stem from their potential to elicit information that
should not be used in hiring decisions.
99. What selection tests would be appropriate to use for entry-level professional positions? Which tests would be
inappropriate or even illegal?
ANSWER:
Appropriate tests for entry-level professional positions would include specific cognitive ability tests that assess
job-related requirements. For instance, mathematical ability and complex problem solving might be
appropriate for some positions in an investment bank. Physical ability and psychomotor tests would not be
appropriate because professional positions are unlikely to require much physical ability.
As a result of concerns about polygraph validity, Congress passed the Employee Polygraph Protection Act,
which prohibits most private-sector employers from using polygraphs for pre-employment screening purposes.
Federal, state, and local government agencies are exempt from the act, as are certain private-sector employers
such as security companies and pharmaceutical companies. The act permits employers to use polygraphs as
part of internal investigations of theft or loss. But in those situations, the polygraph test should be taken
voluntarily, and the employee should be allowed to end the test at any time.
100. Discuss the advantages and limitations of honesty and integrity tests as selection tests.
ANSWER:
Companies use different tests to assess the honesty and integrity of applicants and employees to prevent hiring
dishonest employees, to reduce the frequency of lying and theft on the job, to communicate to applicants and
employees alike that dishonesty will not be tolerated, and to reduce accidents. If used properly, honesty and
integrity tests can be valid as broad screening devices for organizations. Research also indicates that even
though honesty tests can be expensive to administer, they may reduce workers’ compensation claims and save
the company money. They can even enhance employers’ perceived trustworthiness of job candidates.
However, these instruments have limitations. For instance, socially desirable responses are a key concern, and
some questions can be considered overly invasive, insulting, and not job related. Sometimes false positives are
generated (or an honest person is scored as dishonest). Test scores might be affected by individual
demographic factors such as gender and race.
101. “Interviews are the most widely used but the least valid selection method.” Discuss this statement. What are some of
the uses and problems associated with employment interviews?
ANSWER:
Interviews are one of the most common methods used for selection. Interviews are conducted both to obtain
information about candidates and to provide information and reinforce the employer brand. They are an
important part of “selling” the job opportunity to qualified applicants and of applicants “selling” themselves as
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in selecting employees from a pool of applicants.
Interviews must also be valid to enable useful selection. To be valid, interviews must accurately assess
specific candidate qualities such as leadership ability, communication skills, or collaboration. Validity can
vary depending on the degree of structure that is utilized in an interview format. Basically, an unstructured
interview does not usually provide much actual validity, leading to growth in the popularity of structured
interviews.
102. What is the purpose of conducting background investigations on job applicants?
ANSWER:
Background checking is critical for a wide range of positions, including schoolteachers, janitors, bank tellers,
and many others. Background information can be obtained from a variety of sources, including past job
records, credit history, testing records, educational and certification records, drug tests, criminal history, sex
offender lists, motor vehicle records, and military records. Advancements in technology and access to
information online have made it simpler for employers of all sizes to conduct background checks. Background
checks are important because evidence suggests that information presented on résumés is often not accurate
and may be falsified.
Failure to check the backgrounds of people who are hired can lead to embarrassment, legal liability, and
increased costs. Hiring workers who commit violent acts on the job is one example. For jobs in certain
industries, such as those that provide services to children, services to vulnerable adults, security, in–home
services, and financial services, background checks are mandated in some states. Federal regulations mandate
background checks for people with commercial drivers’ licenses who drive tractor-trailer rigs and buses
interstate. Background checks are a significant concern in the trucking and transportation industries, with Uber
and truck drivers facing extra scrutiny with background checks.
103. Discuss the importance of realistic job previews in the selection process.
ANSWER:
Many individuals know little about companies before applying for employment. Consequently, when deciding
whether to accept a job offer, they seek out information during the selection process, including compensation
data, work characteristics, job location, and promotion opportunities. Unfortunately, some employers make
jobs appear better than they really are. Realistic job previews provide potential employees with an accurate
introduction to a job so that they can better evaluate the employment situation. Indeed, a realistic job preview
can directly identify necessary training and clarify a job role.
Companies can use videos, employee testimonials, and job shadowing to provide applicants a realistic look at
the work environment. A real benefit of realistic job previews is that applicants may withdraw from
consideration if they don’t think the job will be a good fit. This saves the company time invested in wooing a
candidate who will end up turning down the job offer. Another advantage is that realistic job previews can
enhance applicant trust in a potential employer.