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ANSWER:
b
85. Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of
a.
predictive validity.
b.
concurrent validity.
c.
content validity.
d.
correlational validity.
ANSWER:
a
86. The process in which a test or battery of tests is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same population)
for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is called
a.
redundancy validation.
b.
repeat validation.
c.
cross-validation.
d.
inferential validation.
ANSWER:
c
87. Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the technique used in
a.
predictive validity.
b.
concurrent validity.
c.
content validity.
d.
correlational validity.
ANSWER:
b
88. The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a
a.
correlation coefficient.
b.
validity indicator.
c.
scale from 1 to 10.
d.
standard deviation.
ANSWER:
a
89. Validity coefficients range from
a.
0.00 to 1.00.
b.
1.00 to 10.00.
c.
-5.00 to +5.00.
d.
-1.00 to +1.00.
ANSWER:
d
90. BluTech performed statistical analyses to assess the validity of the tests it used to screen job candidates. One of those
tests returned a validity coefficient of -1.00. This indicates
a.
a complete lack of relationship.
b.
an error in the statistical methodology.
c.
a perfect negative relationship.
d.
a perfect positive relationship.
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ANSWER:
c
91. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a.
Where did you go to school?
b.
What is your salary history?
c.
Where were you born?
d.
Are you legally authorized to work in the United States?
ANSWER:
c
92. __________ require the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job.
a.
EEOC tests
b.
Work sample tests
c.
Job knowledge tests
d.
Biographical data tests
ANSWER:
b
93. A hiring manager wants to understand how talkative, sociable, active, aggressive, and excitable the candidates are.
This manager is interested in the “Big Five” factor of
a.
extroversion.
b.
agreeableness.
c.
conscientiousness.
d.
neuroticism.
ANSWER:
a
94. BluTech asks applicants to resolve an error in a piece of code similar to the type of issues they would have to deal
with in the job for which they are applying. Because this knowledge and skill is necessary to perform the job, the test is
said to have
a.
criterion-related validity.
b.
content validity.
c.
construct validity.
d.
concurrent validity.
ANSWER:
b
95. Applicants at BluTech take a test that predicts how dependable and organized they are and the extent to which they
will persevere in tasks. The goal of this test is to discover the applicants’ level of
a.
conscientiousness.
b.
extroversion.
c.
agreeableness.
d.
neuroticism.
ANSWER:
a
96. Rob needs to select among three candidates for an open position in his department. Selection tests have determined
that all three have the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to do the job. In choosing among these candidates, Rob is
evaluating their personalities, values, and, most important, their motivation to do well. At this stage in the selection
process, Rob is making a decision based upon __________ factors.
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a.
will-do
b.
can-do
c.
might-do
d.
should-do
ANSWER:
a
97. Constructs, or traits, include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
intelligence.
b.
mechanical comprehension.
c.
physical ability.
d.
anxiety.
ANSWER:
c
98. Sasha needs to select among three candidates for an open position in her department. She was most impressed by
Randall’s personality, values, and motivation to do the job well. However, a work sample test demonstrated that Randall
does not have the skills necessary to perform the job, and Sasha does not have the luxury of training him on the job.
Therefore, Randall is being eliminated from consideration because of __________ factors.
a.
will-do
b.
can-do
c.
might-do
d.
should-do
ANSWER:
b
99. The purposes served by application forms include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
eliminating the need for interviews.
b.
determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements.
c.
providing the basis for interview questions.
d.
offering sources for reference checks.
ANSWER:
a
100. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a.
Asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance
b.
Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
c.
Asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references
d.
Asking the applicant to provide all work experience
ANSWER:
b
101. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a.
Indicating whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S.
b.
Making inquiries about the ability of the applicant to perform job functions
c.
High school and college attendance with dates
d.
References’ names, addresses, and phone numbers
ANSWER:
c
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102. According to studies, __________ of applicants test positive for drugs.
a.
one-third
b.
about one-quarter
c.
ten percent
d.
less than five percent
ANSWER:
d
103. The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants
a.
is a recommended procedure for all potential employees.
b.
should be used only in high-security employment areas.
c.
is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
d.
is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
ANSWER:
c
104. Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes EXCEPT
a.
job satisfaction.
b.
theft.
c.
absenteeism.
d.
job performance.
ANSWER:
a
105. In the __________ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants.
a.
statistical approach
b.
clinical approach
c.
subjective iterative approach
d.
demonstrated approach
ANSWER:
b
106. The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that
a.
employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV.
b.
employers can screen out a prospective employee because he or she has an elevated risk of on-the-job injury.
c.
employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use.
d.
physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
ANSWER:
d
107. Steve applied for a position at BluTech. The interviewers predicted that he would not succeed in the position and
rejected him. Steve was then hired in a similar position at RayZo, BluTech’s main competitor. Steve was very successful
at RayZo, playing a key role in the development of a product that took market share away from BluTech. From BluTech’s
position, the selection decision regarding Steve was a
a.
hit; Steve would have succeeded on the job.
b.
hit; Steve would have failed on the job.
c.
miss; Steve would have succeeded on the job.
d.
miss; Steve would have failed on the job.
ANSWER:
c
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108. A selection ratio of 0.20 for example means that __________ percent of the applicants will be selected.
a.
0.2
b.
2
c.
20
d.
80
ANSWER:
c
109. Steve applied for a position at BluTech. The interviewers predicted that he would not succeed in the position and
rejected him. Steve was then hired in a similar position at RayZo, BluTech’s main competitor. Steve did not do well at
RayZo. He had several lateral transfers within the company before ultimately being let go. From BluTech’s position, the
selection decision regarding Steve was a
a.
hit; Steve would have succeeded on the job.
b.
hit; Steve would have failed on the job.
c.
miss; Steve would have succeeded on the job.
d.
miss; Steve would have failed on the job.
ANSWER:
b
110. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?
a.
Why did you leave your last job?
b.
Are you a man or a woman?
c.
How much do you weigh?
d.
How tall are you?
ANSWER:
a
111. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?
a.
What is the origin of your name?
b.
What is your date of birth?
c.
Have you ever worked under a different name?
d.
Are you a U.S. citizen?
ANSWER:
c
112. In order to fit well with the existing team, a hiring manager needs to find a candidate who is agreeable. That means
the manager is looking for someone who is
a.
sociable, active, and excitable.
b.
amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
c.
secure, independent, and autonomous.
d.
dependable and organized.
ANSWER:
b
113. In order to fit well with the existing team, the supervisor told the HR manager that to be considered the candidates
must exhibit an openness to experience. That means the HR manager should recommend candidates who are
a.
sociable, active, and excitable.
b.
amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
c.
secure, independent, and autonomous.
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d.
insightful, creative, and curious.
ANSWER:
d
114. The personality trait of neuroticism refers to
a.
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable.
b.
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
c.
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous.
d.
the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.
ANSWER:
c
115. The question “What do you do to manage a stressful situation?” might be asked in a(n) __________ test.
a.
integrity
b.
biodata
c.
cognitive ability
d.
work sample
ANSWER:
b
116. The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of a(n)
a.
work sample test.
b.
job knowledge test.
c.
physical ability test.
d.
interest inventory.
ANSWER:
b
117. Which of the following types of tests is increasingly being aided by computer simulations?
a.
Personality tests
b.
Physical ability tests
c.
Cognitive ability tests
d.
Work sample tests
ANSWER:
d
118. Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
a.
interviews are the most valid method of selection.
b.
interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants.
c.
interviews function as a public relations tool.
d.
interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
ANSWER:
a
119. The type of interview that allows the applicant maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of the
discussion is the
a.
nondirective interview.
b.
depth interview.
c.
situational interview.
d.
structured interview.
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ANSWER:
a
120. The set of standardized questions used in a structured interview is based on
a.
job analysis.
b.
hypothetical situations.
c.
the applicant’s area of specialization.
d.
effective communication techniques.
ANSWER:
a
121. An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is
a
a.
computer interview.
b.
panel interview.
c.
situational interview.
d.
nondirective interview.
ANSWER:
c
122. “Tell me about the last time you had a project come in over budget” is an example of a
a.
behavioral description interview question.
b.
panel interview question.
c.
computer interview question.
d.
closed response interview question.
ANSWER:
a
123. “Your team has a deadline 30 days from now. Based on the current status, it appears that your team will not complete
the project until at least one week after that deadline. What will you do?” This is an example of a __________ question.
a.
behavioral description interview
b.
panel interview
c.
situational interview
d.
nondirective interview
ANSWER:
c
124. The question “Should an employee who falsified information on a timecard be fired?” might appear on a(n)
__________ test.
a.
cognitive ability
b.
integrity
c.
quantitative
d.
concurrent validity
ANSWER:
b
125. Identify a benefit of panel interviews.
a.
Cost-efficiency
b.
Unilateral decision making
c.
Longer decision–making period
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d.
Higher reliability because of multiple inputs
ANSWER:
d
126. __________ interviews are attractive because of their convenience and low cost and they make it easier to interview
people in different geographic areas.
a.
Video
b.
Behavioral description
c.
Panel
d.
Structured
ANSWER:
a
127. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a.
Have you ever worked under a different name?
b.
If hired, can you prove your age?
c.
What is your race?
d.
What is your address?
ANSWER:
c
128. All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview EXCEPT
a.
Have you ever been arrested?
b.
Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.?
c.
Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job?
d.
Did you finish school?
ANSWER:
a
129. Steve applied for a position at BluTech. The interviewers thought very highly of Steve and he was hired. Steve was
very successful at BluTech, playing a key role in the development of a major product in his first six months on the job.
From BluTech’s position, the selection decision regarding Steve was a
a.
hit; Steve succeeded on the job.
b.
hit; Steve failed on the job.
c.
miss; Steve succeeded on the job.
d.
miss; Steve failed on the job.
ANSWER:
a
130. The “can–do” factors in selection decisions include
a.
skills.
b.
personality.
c.
values.
d.
motivation.
ANSWER:
a
131. HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions EXCEPT
a.
Should the individuals be hired according to their highest potential or according to the needs of the
organization?
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b.
What effect will the applicants’ family situation have on job performance?
c.
To what extent should those applicants who are not qualified but are trainable be considered?
d.
Should overqualified individuals be considered?
ANSWER:
b
132. Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the _____ approach is considered superior to the _____
approach.
a.
clinical; qualitative
b.
quantitative; statistical
c.
statistical; clinical
d.
subjective; clinical
ANSWER:
c
133. BluTech requires applicants to take a battery of tests. In order to be considered for a position, the applicants must
achieve a minimum score on each test. BluTech is using a __________ selection model.
a.
multiple cutoff
b.
multiple hurdle
c.
compensatory
d.
contingency
ANSWER:
a
134. The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is
the
a.
personal judgment approach.
b.
quantitative approach.
c.
objective approach.
d.
statistical approach.
ANSWER:
d
135. A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills
is employing a __________ selection decision model.
a.
multiple hurdle
b.
compensatory
c.
multiple cut-off
d.
clinical
ANSWER:
b
136. The question “Multiply 25 by 0.5 and add 5. What is the result?” is an example of a quantitative question that might
appear on a(n) __________ test.
a.
multiple cutoff
b.
cognitive ability
c.
integrity
d.
physical ability
ANSWER:
b
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137. A low selection ratio means
a.
the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low.
b.
there are very few qualified applicants.
c.
only the most promising applicants will be hired.
d.
little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
ANSWER:
c
138. The “O” in KSAO stands for
a.
optimal.
b.
outside.
c.
other factors.
d.
obligation.
ANSWER:
c
139. State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for __________ if they fail to do adequate background
checks.
a.
over recruiting
b.
staff inflation
c.
deceptive interviewing
d.
negligent hiring
ANSWER:
d
140. The most reliable information about an applicant’s work habits and performance usually comes from the applicant’s
a.
resume.
b.
co-workers.
c.
supervisors.
d.
former employer’s HR office.
ANSWER:
c
141. One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for
a.
cross-validation.
b.
legal challenges.
c.
employer misunderstanding.
d.
spurious correlation.
ANSWER:
b
142. Define the concepts of reliability and validity.
ANSWER:
Reliability describes the degree to which interviews, tests, and other selection procedures yield comparable
data over a period of time. For example, if an interviewer judges the capabilities of a group of applicants
differently today than yesterday, his or her judgment is unreliable. Reliability can also be determined by
interrater reliability or agreement between two or more raters. Selection decision data that are unreliable
cannot be used as predictors of job success.
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143. Briefly explain the different types of employment tests.
ANSWER:
• Cognitive ability tests measure mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency,
numerical ability, and reasoning ability.
• Biographical data tests (biodata tests) collect biographical information about candidates who has
shown to correlate with on-the-job success. Candidates are questioned about events and behaviors that
reflect attitudes, experiences, interests, skills, and abilities.
• Personality and interest inventories measure dispositional characteristics such as the big five
personality traits of extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to
experience.
• Physical ability tests assess a job candidate’s physical abilities, such as strength and endurance.
• Job knowledge tests are a type of achievement test designed to measure a person’s level of
understanding about a particular job.
• Job sample tests, or work sample tests, require the job applicant to perform tasks that are actually part
of the work required on the job.
• Students may also discuss Honesty/Integrity testing, Polygraph testing, Medical exams, Drug testing
and Biodata tests.
144. Compare and contrast the following four interview approaches: (1) nondirective interview, (2) structured interview,
(3) situational interview, and (4) behavioral description interview.
ANSWER:
In a nondirective interview, the interviewer allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in
determining the course of the discussion. The interviewer asks broad, general questions, but permits the
applicant to talk freely with little interruption. The greater freedom afforded to the applicant in the
nondirective interview is particularly valuable in bringing to the interviewer’s attention any information,
attitudes, or feelings that may be concealed by a more structured approach. However, the unstructured nature
of this approach limits the consistency of information provided and makes it difficult to cross-check agreement
with other interviewers. Thus, the reliability and validity of the nondirective approach are suspected.
The structured interview has a number of standard questions asked of each job applicant. Questions are job-
related based upon job analysis. Since applicants are asked identical questions, the structured interview
provides a more consistent basis for evaluating job candidates. This interview strives to maximize the validity
of selection decisions.
With the situational interview, the applicant is given a hypothetical incident and asked to respond how he or
she would handle it. Responses are evaluated relative to preestablished benchmark standards.
Behavioral description interviews focus on actual work incidents in the interviewee’s past and what the