56. Estimates of losses in the HAZMAT driver workforce could vary from 2 percent to 20 percent as a
result of new federal regulations requiring that all drivers be fingerprinted and those fingerprints
checked to see if the driver has a criminal record. This new ____ will cause a worsening problem for
the already over-extended workforce.
a.
integrity check
b.
background check
c.
recruitment evaluation procedure
d.
biographical data assessment
e.
validation test
57. References Etc is a five-employee firm in Maine that, in exchange for a fee of roughly $80 to $90, will
pose as a prospective employer, call a prior employer on an employee’s behalf, and find out what the
former employer is saying. If the prior employer provides unsubstantiated negative information, then
the job applicant:
a.
should not use the employee as a reference
b.
must not list references on the job application
c.
can sue for defamation
d.
must lie on the job application form
e.
must hire an HR expert to check their résumés
58. Which of the following questions is deemed acceptable (i.e., “legal”) for employers to ask applicants
during the selection process?
a.
Are you a United States citizen?
b.
Have you ever filed a lawsuit against an employer?
c.
Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
d.
Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
e.
none of these
59. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, disabilities (and reasonable accommodations for
them) should be discussed:
a.
as soon as the résumé has been accepted
b.
only after a job offer has been made
c.
during the employment interview
d.
in written request form, on the application blank, prior to the employment interview
e.
prior to the organization hiring its first employee
60. All job applicants for a position in an interior design company were given ten swatches of fabrics of
different colors and textures, 30 different paint chips, and six different floor treatments and told to
select the best fabric, paint, and floor treatment for an office that would also be used as a guest room.
What type of selection test was used in this example?
a.
biotesting
b.
cognitive ability testing
c.
environmental sensitivity testing
d.
aptitude testing
e.
personality testing
61. In 2004, Wal-Mart was sued when an employee with prior criminal convictions for sexually-based
offenses was accused of sexually assaulting young girls during his working hours. A background
check with previous employers would have revealed the employee’s conviction records. But Wal-Mart
did not begin background checks until a year after the employee was imprisoned. The lawsuit was an
example of a(n) _____ lawsuit.
a.
disparate treatment
b.
affirmative action
c.
negligent hiring
d.
employer responsibility
e.
adverse impact
62. Aptitude tests are also called:
a.
specific ability tests
b.
cognitive ability tests
c.
personality tests
d.
work sample tests
e.
job-related achievement tests
63. Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
a.
specific ability tests
b.
cognitive ability tests
c.
personality tests
d.
achievement tests
e.
work sample tests
64. A perennial problem of teacher education programs is to select the highest quality candidates and to
deny admission to those unsuited to work in schools. One suggested method is to ask applicants a
series of questions about their experiences with siblings, how they treat stress, their attitude toward
procrastination, and ways that they like to have fun. This method, which can use over 100 questions,
gathers:
a.
background data
b.
validation material
c.
work situation assessments
d.
biodata
e.
information on affective skills
65. When hiring employees for her spa and relaxation center, Hope Kharzov wants to hire people with
strong empathy, a willingness to listen to others, and trustworthiness. What kind of selection tests
would most likely reveal if a job applicant had these characteristics?
a.
biodata
b.
skills ability tests
c.
cognitive ability tests
d.
work sample tests
e.
personality tests
66. According to the text, if an employer were to use only one type of selection test, ____ would be the
one to use.
a.
achievement tests
b.
personality tests
c.
cognitive ability tests
d.
work sample tests
e.
biodata
67. Which of the following is a direct (rather than indirect) measure of job applicants’ capability to do the
job?
a.
creativity tests
b.
cognitive ability tests
c.
personality tests
d.
achievement tests
e.
work sample tests
68. The more common assessment center exercises include:
a.
in-basket exercises
b.
small-group presentations
c.
role-plays
d.
leaderless group discussions
e.
all of these
69. __________ use a series of managerial simulations, graded by trained observers, to determine
applicants’ capabilities for managerial work.
a.
Managerial focus groups
b.
Assessment centers
c.
Work sample stations
d.
Performance appraisal centers
e.
Computer job-related games
70. The ____ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of
time and asked of all candidates
a.
formalized
b.
structured
c.
semi-structured
d.
informal
e.
canned
71. What is the primary advantage of the structured interview?
a.
the amount of background information it reveals
b.
its ability to substitute for biodata
c.
all applicants are asked the same questions
d.
its low costs
e.
its validity
72. What type of job interview might be used after a background question revealed the applicant had spent
three years working in Africa convincing parents to allow their children to take polio vaccine?
a.
canned
b.
semistructured
c.
tangential
d.
creative
e.
programmed
73. ____ means providing opportunities for employees to develop the job-specific skills, experience, and
knowledge they need to do their jobs or improve their performance.
a.
Supervising
b.
Directing
c.
Training
d.
Mentoring
e.
Mediating
74. ____ interviewing typically leads to much more accurate hiring decisions (i.e., correctly predicting
which job applicants will perform better, and therefore should be hired).
a.
Structured
b.
Unstructured
c.
Scripted
d.
Formalized
e.
Scenario
75. Which of the following training methods is most appropriate for imparting information or knowledge
to trainees?
a.
group discussions
b.
lectures and planned readings
c.
role-playing
d.
case studies
e.
coaching and mentoring
76. Which of the following training methods is most appropriate when the objective of training is
practicing, learning, or changing behaviors?
a.
group discussions
b.
planned readings and lectures
c.
role-playing
d.
case studies
e.
films and videos
77. One of the disadvantages associated with Internet training is:
a.
its increased popularity
b.
how it increases employee stress
c.
how it decreases workplace productivity
d.
how it increases travel costs
e.
the cost of equipment and technology
78. Which of the following is one of the ways in which training can be evaluated?
a.
reactions of employees
b.
on how much employees learned
c.
how much employees actually modified their on-the- job behavior
d.
how job performance improved
e.
all of these
79. Which of the following is a common type of rating error that managers are prone to in the performance
appraisal process?
a.
standard deviation
b.
descriptive bias error
c.
80/20 error
d.
central tendency error
e.
all of these
80. What type of error did the manager use when she rated all of her subordinates as above-average in all
performance areas?
a.
central tendency error
b.
validity error
c.
leniency error
d.
halo error
e.
superlative error
81. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is true?
a.
Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.
b.
Performance appraisals can be used as a basis for compensation, but not as a basis for
determining who needs further training.
c.
Since performance appraisal is only a marginally important human resource process, any
problems associated with it do not affect the organizations overall.
d.
Legally, a disgruntled employee cannot sue an employer on the basis of a dissatisfactory
performance appraisal.
e.
All of these statements about performance appraisal are true.
82. Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
a.
behavioral observation scales
b.
sales quotas
c.
production rate
d.
revenues
e.
number of customer complaints
83. ____ require raters to rate the frequency with which workers perform specific behaviors representative
of the job dimensions that are critical to successful job performance.
a.
Behavioral observation scales
b.
Observational research studies
c.
Performance rating scales
d.
Objective performance measures
e.
Trait rating scales
84. ____ are measures of performance that are easily and directly counted and quantified.
a.
subjective performance measures
b.
static performance measures
c.
relative performance measures
d.
objective performance measures
e.
dynamic performance measures
85. A ____ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates,
peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
a.
360-degree feedback
b.
performance appraisal iteration
c.
reciprocal appraisal
d.
grapevine appraisal
e.
circular feedback program
86. To improve traditional performance appraisal feedback sessions, it is recommended that managers:
a.
combine developmental feedback and administrative feedback
b.
strengthen the grading aspect of performance appraisal
c.
base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals
d.
use outsourcing
e.
use either a halo or a recency measure
87. Which of the following statements about 360-degree feedback is true?
a.
360-degree feedback is most effective when used to train performance raters.
b.
A 360-degree feedback provides feedback from peer workers only.
c.
With the 360-degree feedback approach, feedback comes from four sources.
d.
Employees do not provide feedback about their own efforts in the 360-degree feedback
approach.
e.
360-degree feedback should not be used for developmental purposes.
88. The four basic kinds of compensation decisions are pay level, pay structure, pay variability, and:
a.
severance package
b.
worker satisfaction
c.
Employee Assistant Planning (EAP) programs
d.
pay discharge
e.
employment benefits
89. ____ determine the worth of each job by determining the market value of the knowledge, skills, and
requirements needed to perform it.
a.
Work performance scales
b.
Job evaluations
c.
Job analyses
d.
Pay variability charts
e.
Hierarchical pay structures
90. The term ____ refers to both the financial and nonfinancial rewards organizations give employees in
exchange for their work.
a.
wages
b.
value-added
c.
compensation
d.
salaries
e.
fees
91. Which of the following is NOT an example of a pay-variability decision used to motivate employee
performance?
a.
piecework pay
b.
hierarchical pay
c.
sales commission
d.
stock options
e.
profit sharing
92. Continental Airlines said in January 2005 that it would share with employees 30 percent of the first
$250 million in pre-tax income, 25 percent of the next $250 million, and 20 percent of amounts
exceeding $500 million. Under the previous ____ program, Continental distributed among employees
15 percent of pre-tax income.
a.
piecework pay
b.
hierarchical pay
c.
sales commission
d.
payroll deductions
e.
profit sharing
93. An ESOP is an:
a.
equitable stock ownership plan
b.
employee stock ownership plan
c.
employee salary option program
d.
equity in salary organizational plan
e.
employer/subordinate organizational profit
94. One of the reasons items manufactured in Southeast Asia can be imported into the United States so
cheaply is that workers are paid a small amount of money for each item produced. The manufacturers
operating in Southeast Asia use what type of pay plan?
a.
real-time pay
b.
compressed pay
c.
piecework
d.
batch processing
e.
commission
95. Which of the following is a method of rewarding employees that includes virtually any kind of
compensation other than wages or salaries?
a.
cafeteria benefit plans
b.
employee benefits
c.
a combination compensation plan
d.
piecework benefits
e.
a drawing account
96. Flexible benefit plans:
a.
are also referred to as piecework plans
b.
make organizations less attractive to job applicants
c.
decrease the chances that employees will stay with companies
d.
are inexpensive to administer
e.
are also called cafeteria benefit plans
97. Which of the following statements about employee separation is true?
a.
Employee separations may be voluntary or involuntary.
b.
Examples of employee separation would include terminations, downsizing, retirements,
and turnover.
c.
Wrongful discharge is a legal doctrine that requires employers to have a job-related reason
for terminating an employee.
d.
Outplacement services provide employment-counseling services for employees faced with
downsizing.
e.
All of these statements about employee separation are true.
98. To minimize the problems inherent in firing employees, managers should do which of the following?
a.
Before firing employees, managers should give them a chance to improve.
b.
Employees should be fired if they develop a health problem that will put an unforeseen
burden on the company’s insurance carrier.
c.
Employees should never be fired in private.
d.
While written records are not necessary, managers should be sure to verbally report the
reason for the firing to the human resource department.
e.
None of these statements describes what a manager should do to minimize the problems
inherent in firing employees.
99. Sharron Grant-Burton was a marketing director for Covenant Care, an owner of skilled-nursing and
assisted-living facilities. During a discussion of the fairness of the company’s bonus structure with
other marketing directors, Grant-Burton said she did not receive a bonus because her executive
director “did not believe in them.” Several days later, Grant-Burton was fired and told she had been
terminated for a number of unspecified reasons, including her comments about bonuses. This is an
example of a:
a.
de-employment
b.
wrongful discharge
c.
reactive termination
d.
regressive turnover
e.
proactive termination
100. Which of the following statements regarding downsizing is true?
a.
Downsizing refers to the revaluation or splitting of the organization’s common stock.
b.
Downsizing typically leads to increased employee morale.
c.
When downsizing, outplacement programs can help the downsized employees find jobs.
d.
The best strategy for downsizing is to establish a tall organizational structure as quickly as
possible.
e.
Downsizing is seldom a planned strategy; it typically evolves as a result of environmental
changes.
101. In July 2006, money.CNN.com reported, in a segment called, “101 Dumbest Moments in Business”,
that Northwest Airlines conducted a planned elimination of thousands of jobs, but not before issuing
the employees a handy guide, “101 Ways to Save Money.” The advice includes dumpster diving
(“Don’t be shy about pulling something you like out of the trash”), making your own baby food,
shredding old newspapers for use as cat litter, and taking walks in the woods as a low-cost dating
alternative. Norwest Airlines engaged in:
a.
disparate treatment
b.
downsizing
c.
employee acculturation
d.
recruitment socialization
e.
adverse treatment
102. Despite the layoffs and plant closings that have eliminated thousands of jobs over the past two years,
the Louisiana chemical industry faces a looming shortage of process operators and is hiring new ones
as fast as it can. The average age of a plant operator is 50. A wave of retirements in coming years
will create openings for as many as 10,000 new operators in the chemical industry. The _____ was
implemented to increase productivity and reduce costs.
a.
ERIP
b.
reengineering
c.
ESOP
d.
downsizing
e.
phased retirement
103. Which of the following provides employment counseling services for employees faced with
downsizing?
a.
outplacement services
b.
reassessment centers
c.
employee outsourcing
d.
employee restructuring
e.
outsourced centers
104. Which of the following statements about employee turnover is true?
a.
For top management, dysfunctional turnover is preferable to functional turnover.
b.
One of the best ways to discourage turnover is to link pay directly to performance.
c.
Employee turnover is the loss of employees who involuntarily choose to leave a company.
d.
Functional turnover requires outplacement services.
e.
Sales commissions and bonuses should not be used to decrease employee turnover.
105. Which of the following statements related to early retirement incentive programs (ERIPs) is true?
a.
Such programs offer only nonfinancial benefits to employees to encourage them to retire
early.
b.
Companies use ERIPs to increase variable costs while reducing fixed costs.
c.
Companies use ERIPs to create openings and job opportunities for people inside the
company.
d.
ERIPs are especially useful to predict the success of a downsizing strategy.
e.
ERIPs are a win-win strategy with no disadvantages for either employer or employee.
106. Despite the layoffs and plant closings that have eliminated thousands of jobs over the past two years,
the Louisiana chemical industry faces a looming shortage of process operators and is hiring new ones
as fast as it can. The average age of an effective plant operator is 50. A wave of retirements among
these highly qualified and experienced operators in coming years will create openings for as many as
10,000 operators in the chemical industry. The retirement of the current operators is an example of:
a.
de-employment
b.
dysfunctional turnover
c.
reactive turnover
d.
regressive turnover
e.
a “brain leak”
107. ____ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
a.
De-employment
b.
Dysfunctional turnover
c.
Reactive turnover
d.
Regressive turnover
e.
A “brain leak”
Trends in Hiring Practices
Zachary Schneider saw a sign in the window of an Amy’s Ice Creams franchise operation. The sign
said the company was looking for new employees. When he went in to ask for a job application, he
was given a paper bag and told to do “something creative with it.” The test was to see whether the job
applicant was suited to carrying out the chain’s mission: “To make people’s day.” This type of
pre-employment assessment is not unusual. Gourmet grocery chain Central Market uses a four-page
application form, which includes essay questions such as “Tell us about your favorite food
experience.” If it seems an applicant is a good match for the company, then he or she is asked to make
a statement about himself or herself using items found in the grocery store and to participate with other
applicants in a roundtable discussion.
108. Refer to Trends in Hiring Practices. The need for creative skills in order to work at Amy’s would be
listed as a ____ that the company’s HR department would have developed for franchisees.
a.
task specialization
b.
job description
c.
work empowerment norm
d.
job specification
e.
multitasking capability
109. Refer to Trends in Hiring Practices. Amy’s is convinced that how applicants respond to its request to
do something creative with a brown paper bag accurately predicts how well job applicants will
perform if hired. In other words, it believes its pre-employment assessment method is:
a.
standardized
b.
valid
c.
efficient
d.
economical
e.
reliable
110. Refer to Trends in Hiring Practices. Which recruiting technique did Amy’s use?
a.
internal recruiting
b.
establishing career paths
c.
franchising
d.
job posting
e.
external recruiting
111. Refer to Trends in Hiring Practices. Central Market uses its application form to:
a.
shield it from EEOC prosecution
b.
avoid reference checks
c.
administer selection tests
d.
determine how well future employees are performing
e.
train new employees
112. Refer to Trends in Hiring Practices. The roundtable method used by Central Market is a leaderless
group discussion and is a common method used:
a.
by assessment centers
b.
in role-playing
c.
with work basket tests
d.
for biodata checks
e.
for job validation