Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right
people to form a qualified work force.
2. Training and performance appraisal are basic activities in the final phase of the human resource
management process, which is the retention of qualified employees.
3. In workforce forecasting, three kinds of forecasting methods (direct managerial input, best guess, and
statistical/historical ratios) may be used to generate two kinds of workforce forecasts (internal and
external forecasts).
4. The most common workforce forecasting method is statistical/historical ratios.
5. Human resource information systems (HRIS) are computerized systems for gathering, analyzing,
storing, and disseminating information related to attracting, developing, and keeping a qualified work
force.
6. Human resource information systems can be used for transaction processing, employee self-service,
and decision support for human resource decisions.
7. The only time that sex, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are
considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
8. There are three sets of federal laws that are important to the human resource management process.
They are federal employment laws, federal labor laws (which regulate the interaction between
management and labor unions that represent groups of employees), and the Occupational Safety and
Health Act (OSHA).
9. Disparate impact and adverse impact are defined in labor laws issued by the National Labor Relations
Board.
10. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures are one of the most important federal
guidelines that organizations can use to ensure they are in compliance with federal employment laws.
11. In legal terms, intentional discrimination by an employer is identified as adverse impact while
unintentional discrimination is called disparate impact.
12. The hostile work environment form of sexual harassment occurs when employment outcomes, such as
hiring, promotion, or simply keeping one’s job, depend on whether an individual submits to being
sexually harassed.
13. Full compliance with federal law is enough to ensure that an organization cannot incur liability in
sexual harassment complaints.
14. Job analysis is a purposeful and systematic process for collecting information on the important
work-related aspects of a job.
15. A job specification summarizes the basic tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, and a job
description summarizes the qualifications needed to successfully perform the job.
16. Job analyses, job descriptions, and job specifications help companies meet the legal requirement that
their human resource decisions be job related.
17. Validation is the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job
performance.
18. Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants
provide about themselves.
19. Cognitive ability tests are also called aptitude tests.
20. According to the “Doing the Right Thing” box, lie detectors and handwriting analyses are good tools
to use when making HR decisions.
21. If an HR manager were allowed to use just one selection test, cognitive ability tests would be the one
to use.
22. Assessment centers use a variety of aptitude tests, cognitive ability tests, and biodata surveys to select
applicants for entry-level jobs.
23. Since interviews are especially good at assessing applicants’ interpersonal skills, they work especially
well together with cognitive ability tests, where the combination leads to even better selection
decisions than using either alone.
24. Training provides opportunities for employees to develop the job-specific skills, experience, and
knowledge they need to do their jobs or improve their performance.
25. To choose the best training method, a company should consider such factors as the number of people
to be trained, the cost of training, and the objectives of the training.
26. Behavioral observation scales (BOS) ask raters to rate the frequency with which workers perform
specific behaviors representative of the job dimensions that are critical to successful job performance.
27. When participants in the Survivor television series are each asked to answer questions such as “Who
within the group does the least work?” and “Who within the group is most friendly?” it is a form of
360-degree feedback because the answers are revealed to everyone.
28. In setting their pay structures, companies use a procedure known as performance assessment, which
determines the worth of each job by determining the market value of the knowledge, skills, and
requirements needed to perform it.
29. Piecework, sales commission, profit sharing, employee stock ownership plans, and stock options are
common pay-variability options.
30. There are no legally mandated employee benefits.
31. Another name for the flexible benefit plan is the cafeteria benefit plan.
32. Businesses that adhere to participative management theories believe it is motivational to fire
unproductive employees in front of their peers rather than behind closed doors.
33. Wrongful discharge is a legal doctrine that requires a manager to have the approval of the human
resource manager to terminate employees.
34. Outplacement services provide businesses with a way to outsource common business practices, such as
telemarketing and the mailing of monthly statements, without having to do an expensive search.
35. Once a company finishes the downsizing process, it should never need to downsize again.
36. The biggest problem with ERIPs is accurately predicting who and how many will accept early
retirement.
37. Employee turnover is always bad for an organization.
38. While there are many advantages for companies who offer their employees phased retirement, it really
provides few real benefits for employees.
39. When AES, a utility company, was able to terminate some of its least productive workers by getting
them to accept a generous severance package, it created proactive turnover.
40. Dysfunctional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees due to unplanned downsizing.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ____ is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
a.
Functional resource planning
b.
Human resource management
c.
Workforce forecasting
d.
Recruiting
e.
Human resource implementation
2. One potential problem with job growth is too few skilled workers. This problem places heavy demands
on:
a.
functional resource planning
b.
human resource management
c.
workforce forecasting
d.
the employer-employee paradigm
e.
human resource implementation
3. The first stage in human resource management is to:
a.
keep qualified employees
b.
determine human resource needs
c.
develop qualified employees
d.
attract qualified employees
e.
create an employee-needs forecast
4. Burberry is a British-based retailer that opened two new stores in Japan. In terms of human resource
management, the Japanese store manager first should have:
a.
determined how many sales clerks, maintenance staff, buyers, and other administrative
personnel would be needed to operate the store
b.
run ads in local newspapers to gain access to qualified employees
c.
determined whether he would pay commissions or a straight salary to sales clerks
d.
decided what kind and how much training would be required for store employees to reflect
the Burberry image of customer service
e.
established selection benchmarks
5. __________ is the process of using an organization’s goals and strategy to forecast the organization’s
human resource needs in terms of attracting, developing, and keeping a qualified work force.
a.
Human resource planning
b.
Proactive resource management
c.
Workforce forecasting
d.
An employee-needs assessment
e.
An organizational job analysis
6. SABMiller is a brewing company that was created when South African breweries purchased Miller
Brewing. Which of the following is an internal factor that could influence workforce forecasting for
the new company?
a.
the banning of beer from sports arenas
b.
less demand for beer among the less-than-30 group
c.
a new CEO
d.
shrinking work force from which to draw employees
e.
changing government regulation of beer content
7. __________ is based on managers’ assessment of current head count plus a best guess of how internal
factors and external factors will affect that head count.
a.
Organizational charting
b.
Best-guess forecasting
c.
Employment mapping
d.
Functional needs auditing
e.
Resource-needs assessment
8. __________ is an internal factor that influences workforce forecasting, while __________ is an
external factor that influences workforce forecasting.
a.
Human resource planning; the organization’s mission
b.
Growth in particular businesses; turnover
c.
Death; unemployment rate
d.
The general economic condition; retirement
e.
None of the choices
9. Burberry is a British-based retailer that opened two new stores in Japan. Which of the following is an
internal factor that could influence workforce forecasting for Burberry?
a.
demographics of Japanese labor supply
b.
Burberry’s mission statement
c.
strength and number of retail competitors
d.
the unemployment rate in Japan
e.
none of these
10. Stagecoach is the name of a company that operates bus and rail services in the United Kingdom.
Which of the following is an external factor that could influence workforce forecasting for
Stagecoach?
a.
employee turnover
b.
the service provider’s mission statement
c.
the number of retirements and resignations of current employees
d.
the availability of applicants with the ability to be drivers and mechanics for the company
e.
all of these
11. __________is a kind of forecasting method used to predict the number and kind of workers with
specific skills and abilities that an organization will need in the future. This forecasting method is
based on straightforward projections of cash flows, expenses, or other financial measures.
a.
Direct managerial input
b.
Resource-needs assessment
c.
Functional needs audit
d.
The Delphi technique
e.
Employment charting
12. Which of the following is a statistical method of forecasting the number and kind of workers with
specific skills and abilities that an organization will need in the future?
a.
trend analysis
b.
statistical/historical ratios
c.
statistical validation
d.
longitudinal trend analysis
e.
the Delphi technique
13. The most common workforce forecasting method uses:
a.
computer simulations
b.
direct managerial input
c.
statistical/historical ratios
d.
employment trend analyses
e.
best guess forecasting
14. Which of the following statements about human resource information systems is true?
a.
Human resource information systems are computerized systems for gathering, analyzing,
storing, and disseminating information related to attracting, developing, and keeping a
qualified work force.
b.
Human resource information systems can be used to do résumé analysis, pre-employment
testing, and background screening.
c.
Human resource information systems can be used for transaction processing.
d.
Human resource information systems are typically used to give managers and HR staffers
access to human resource data.
e.
All of these statements about human resource information systems are true.
15. A human resource information system is typically used to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
engage in transaction processing
b.
provide employee self-service
c.
provide decision support for human resource decisions
d.
evaluate subjective performance measures
e.
provide pre-employment testing
16. Which of the following statements about federal employment law is true?
a.
This body of law has not changed during the last two decades.
b.
The intent of anti-discrimination law is to make factors such as sex, race, or age irrelevant
in employment decisions.
c.
Federal law prohibits the use of sex, race, and age as the basis for employment decisions
under all circumstances.
d.
All federal laws are administered by the Department of Labor.
e.
Federal employment laws do not deal with training and development activities.
17. To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal
employment law apply?
a.
selection decisions
b.
compensation decisions
c.
performance appraisals
d.
training and development activities
e.
all of these
18. The fact a 98-pound job candidate is not hired as a dock worker to move 60-pound boxes of produce is
legal as a result of:
a.
the four-fifths rule
b.
adverse impact rulings
c.
bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
d.
gender selectivity
e.
benefits and features for occupational quality (BFOQs)
19. Engineered Fabrics makes bladders for airplane gas tanks. In the event of a puncture, the bladder will
prevent the tank from exploding. The bladders must be defect-free. To check the bladders, company
employees must be able to crawl in an 18-inch diameter hole in the bladder side and look for light
leaks. A limitation on weight and height of individuals working in quality control at this company
would be legal because it is an example of:
a.
the four-fifths rule
b.
adverse impact rulings
c.
bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
d.
gender selectivity
e.
benefits and features of occupational quality (BFOQs)
20. ____ is intentional discrimination that occurs when people are purposely not given the same hiring,
promotion, or membership opportunities because of their race, sex, color, age, ethnic group, national
origin, or religious beliefs.
a.
Disparate treatment
b.
Adverse harassment
c.
The four-fifths rule
d.
Deliberate negative reinforcement
e.
Inequitable discrimination
21. Bruce Tulgan, a consultant on generational workplace issues, estimates that 3.5 million people
between the ages of 40 and 58 vanished from the American workforce from 2001 to 2004. That’s about
5 percent of all baby-boomers. Tulgan writes, “Older white-collar workers are quickly becoming
disenfranchised through no fault of their own. They have difficulty getting back into the job market,
and when they do, their compensation is often significantly reduced.” The disenfranchisement of
baby boomers is an example of:
a.
bona fide discrimination
b.
disparate treatment
c.
gender selectivity
d.
quid pro quo selectivity
e.
hostile impact
22. ____ is unintentional discrimination in which there is a substantially different rate of selection in
hiring, promotion, or other employment decisions that works to the disadvantage of members of a
particular race, sex, age, ethnicity, or protected group.
a.
Disparate treatment
b.
Adverse impact
c.
Bona fide discrimination
d.
Unsolicited discrimination
e.
Demographic discrimination
23. While ____ is a key part of determining disparate treatment, the courts and federal agencies use ____
to determine if adverse impact has occurred.
a.
the four-fifths rule; motive
b.
environmental context; motive
c.
the 80-20 principle; environmental context
d.
workplace demographics; intention
e.
motive; the four-fifths rule
24. Darlene Jespersen worked for nearly 20 years in a Harrah’s Casino sports bar. She was an outstanding
employee, but she didn’t wear makeup because she felt it “took away her credibility” and interfered
with her ability to be an effective bartender, which sometimes required her to deal with unruly,
intoxicated guests. This changed when Harrah’s implemented a “beverage department image
transformation” program. Female employees were told they would be fired if they did not wear
makeup. Jespersen contended that it was an example of ____ because male employees did not have to
wear makeup.
a.
disparate treatment
b.
adverse harassment
c.
the four-fifths rule
d.
deliberate negative reinforcement
e.
inequitable discrimination
25. The International Gay Rodeo Association (IGRA) began in 1976. By the end of the 1980s, gay rodeos
were being held in more than a dozen states, and today there are 24 chapters that have raised millions
for charity. But even the IGRA is not exempt from concerns about discrimination. To avoid claims of
____, straight people are allowed to participate in all IGRA events.
a.
bona fide discrimination
b.
disparate treatment
c.
gender selectivity
d.
quid pro quo selectivity
e.
hostile impact
26. The ____ is a rule of thumb used by the courts and the EEOC to determine whether there is evidence
of adverse impact. A violation of this rule occurs when the selection rate for a protected group is less
than 80 percent or four-fifths of the selection rate for a nonprotected group.
a.
two-fifths rule
b.
80 percent rule
c.
dysfunctional turnover rule
d.
disparate treatment rule
e.
principle of adverse impact
27. From a legal perspective, there are two kinds of sexual harassment. They are:
a.
quid pro quo and hostile work environment
b.
hostile work environment and bona fide
c.
adverse impact and bona fide
d.
quid pro quo and bona fide
e.
adverse impact and disparate treatment
28. When Sheila White, a forklift operator, was hired on the Burlington Northern Santa Fe Railway yard
in Memphis, she had experience in that position and was the only woman in her maintenance division.
Three months into her job, White complained that her foreman, who had never supervised a woman
before, constantly made inappropriate remarks to her about her figure. White’s foreman was guilty of:
a.
an unwelcome sexual advance
b.
adverse impact discrimination
c.
demographic discrimination
d.
sexual harassment
e.
disparate treatment
29. When the CEO opened the nationwide sales force meeting with a crude sexually explicit joke about
Foreign Legion soldiers, it was an example of:
a.
an unwelcome sexual advance
b.
adverse impact discrimination
c.
demographic discrimination
d.
sexual harassment
e.
disparate treatment
30. ____ is the form of sexual harassment in which employment outcomes, such as hiring, promotion, or
simply keeping one’s job, depend on whether an individual submits to sexual harassment.
a.
Bona fide sexual harassment
b.
Quid pro quo sexual harassment
c.
Adverse impact sexual harassment
d.
Disparate gender treatment
e.
Hostile work environment sexual harassment
31. Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
a.
Only people who have themselves been harassed can file complaints or lawsuits.
b.
Nonemployees cannot be guilty of sexual harassment.
c.
Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex.
d.
The three kinds of sexual harassment are quid pro quo, bona fide, and disparate treatment.
e.
None of these statements about sexual harassment is true.
32. Former female employees of a national real estate brokerage firm claimed that they were subjected to
lewd remarks, unwanted groping, and sexual propositions by male co-workers. According to their
attorney, “The firm created a frat-house culture and then failed to do anything about it.” Their suit
claims the women were victims of:
a.
disparate treatment
b.
a hostile work environment
c.
gender discrimination
d.
quid pro quo sexual harassment
e.
adverse treatment
33. To ensure that sexual harassment laws are followed and not violated, companies should:
a.
respond immediately when sexual harassment is reported
b.
write a clear, understandable, strongly worded policy that is well publicized within the
company
c.
make sure they are acting in compliance with not only federal laws but also with local
laws
d.
respect the privacy of the accused and the accusers
e.
do all of these
34. A ____ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related
aspects of a job.
a.
job analysis
b.
task evaluation
c.
job specification
d.
job validation
e.
job description
35. In the 1990s, General Electric (GE) made an obsession of identifying its hottest up-and-comers at
young ages. They were called “high pots,” for high potential, and fast-tracked up the corporate ladder,
but the middle-aged managers who occupied rungs along their route were called “blockers,” and they
had to be removed. In other words, GE relied on _____ to fill its executive positions.
a.
internal recruiting
b.
job posting
c.
external recruiting
d.
downsizing
e.
restructuring
36. Bona fide occupational qualifications would be most likely included in a(n):
a.
job specification
b.
employee assignment list
c.
labor resource guide
d.
job description
e.
task inventory
37. Two of the most important results of a job analysis are:
a.
recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries
b.
job descriptions and job specifications
c.
rater training and selection validation
d.
employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
e.
employee-needs assessment and job mapping
38. ____ help companies meet the legal requirement that their human resource decisions be job related.
a.
Job analyses, task evaluations, and employee-needs assessment
b.
Job descriptions, external environments, and employee mapping
c.
Job specifications, job analyses, and job descriptions
d.
Job analyses, task specializations, and external environments
e.
Internal environments, external environments, and job descriptions
39. The National Board of Chiropractic Examiners (NBCE) recently announced that its 200-page Job
Analysis of Chiropractic 2005 is available. You would expect this job analysis to contain:
a.
information regarding the tasks, professional responsibilities, and conditions that
chiropractors see in their offices on a daily basis
b.
information about public opinion of chiropractics
c.
economic requirements for opening a chiropractic office
d.
type of patients seen in chiropractic offices
e.
all of these
40. The United Kingdom issued a new recruitment publication for the nation’s Fire Service. The
publication is entitled Start a New Life—Save Someone Else’s and lists all of the qualifications needed
to become a fire fighter. This recruitment pamphlet is actually a(n):
a.
job specification
b.
task inventory
c.
labor resource guide
d.
job description
e.
organizational chart
41. Which of the following types of information would typically be collected as part of a job analysis?
a.
work activities
b.
tools and equipment used
c.
knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do the job
d.
job context
e.
all of these
42. Before beginning to recruit, organizations must:
a.
advertise for job candidates
b.
create a job description
c.
conduct a job analysis
d.
create a job specification
e.
match salaries to industry averages
43. In order to be considered ____, recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisals, and employee
separations must be valid and be directly related to the important aspects of the job and identified by a
careful job analysis.
a.
employee related
b.
reliable
c.
concrete
d.
competitive
e.
job related
44. Which of the following is an internal recruiting method?
a.
advertising
b.
job fairs
c.
job posting
d.
Internet job sites
e.
walk-ins
45. Which of the following is an internal recruiting method?
a.
employee referrals
b.
career paths
c.
walk-ins
d.
employment services
e.
advertisements
46. Which of the following is an external recruiting method?
a.
advertising
b.
career paths
c.
job posting
d.
needs-assessment implementations
e.
all of these
47. Which of the following statements about Internet recruiting is true?
a.
Internet recruiting costs are considerably higher than traditional external recruiting
methods.
b.
The Internet allows companies to quickly reach large numbers of people.
c.
The company will only receive applications from qualified people.
d.
There are no drawbacks to Internet recruiting.
e.
All of these are statements about Internet recruiting are true.
48. ____ is the process of gathering information about job applicants to decide who should be offered a
job.
a.
Job validation
b.
Pool enrichment
c.
Recruiting
d.
Selection
e.
Job inventorying
49. A study in the construction industry found that 82 percent of the time equipment is stolen from
building sites workers are the culprits. If background checks reduced employee thievery over a period
of time and throughout the industry, then this selection process would be:
a.
validated
b.
EEOC certified
c.
legally authorized
d.
corroborated
e.
legally binding
50. Which of the following statements about résumés and job application forms is true?
a.
Résumés and job application forms provide the employer with distinctly different
information.
b.
It is nearly impossible to check the information provided on résumés.
c.
Employee-related laws apply to job application forms and résumés.
d.
Potential employees typically create résumés that honestly describe their work
experiences.
e.
There is international agreement on what type of information can be gathered on job
application forms
51. Which of the following statements about validation is true?
a.
The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures recommend validation only
for written tests used as selection procedures.
b.
Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure
predicts future job performance.
c.
A test is said to be valid when it produces the same results every time it is used.
d.
In terms of recruitment, validation is most important in identifying what training
prospective employees need.
e.
None of these statements about validation is true.
52. The first selection devices most job applicants encounter when they seek a job are:
a.
Internet sites and trade shows
b.
recruitment centers and Internet sites
c.
interviews and job application letters
d.
help wanted ads
e.
application forms and résumés
53. ____ are procedures used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide
about themselves and to uncover negative, job-related background information not provided by
applicants.
a.
Integrity checks
b.
Background checks
c.
Recruitment evaluation procedures
d.
Biographical data assessments
e.
Validation tests
54. Which of the following is a legal problem employers may encounter in seeking, providing, or using
employment references as part of the selection process?
a.
defamation lawsuits
b.
adverse impact lawsuits
c.
product liability lawsuits
d.
accusations of disparate discrimination
e.
accusations of reciprocity
55. A study in the construction industry found that 82 percent of the time equipment is stolen from
building sites workers are the culprits. Which type of selection information would employers in the
construction industry receive the greatest benefit from if their goal is to stop employee theft?
a.
résumés
b.
performance appraisals
c.
job descriptions
d.
background checks
e.
connotative ability tests