e.
continuum
50. Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
a.
innovation maps
b.
organization development
c.
results-driven change
d.
innovation streams
e.
cyclical inventions
51. The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process
made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed
up innovation.
a.
compression
b.
milestones
c.
dialectical
d.
generational
e.
prototypical
52. Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational
change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
a.
unfreezing
b.
organizational dialogue
c.
change definition
d.
incremental change
e.
change mentoring
53. According to John Kotter’s analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and
potentially most serious of these errors is:
a.
not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
b.
declaring victory too soon
c.
not anchoring changes in the corporation’s culture
d.
not removing obstacles to the new vision
e.
a poorly designed organizational mission
54. The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
a.
activity-oriented change
b.
results-driven change
c.
generational change
d.
vision-driven change
e.
resources-driven change
55. Which of the following approaches is aimed at changing large systems, small groups, or individuals?
a.
General Electric workout
b.
the functional approach to change
c.
organizational development
d.
results-driven change
e.
Lewin’s change synthesis
56. The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
a.
government import standards and industry import standards
b.
qualitative and quantitative barriers
c.
voluntary and involuntary barriers
d.
nationalistic and geocentric barriers
e.
tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
57. The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global
trade during the 1990s was the:
a.
Maastricht Treaty of Europe
b.
North American Free Trade Agreement
c.
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
d.
Mercosur
e.
Asian Free Trade Arrangement
58. In a multinational firm, managers at company headquarters typically prefer an emphasis on
__________ because it simplifies decisions.
a.
local consistency
b.
local adaptation
c.
global adaptation
d.
global consistency
e.
domestic adaptation
59. Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the phase model of globalization?
a.
exporting; wholly owned affiliates; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances
b.
exporting; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates; strategic alliances
c.
exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates
d.
exporting; strategic alliances; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates
e.
home country sales; exporting; job ventures; strategic alliances, and direct investment
60. A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:
a.
a large population of unskilled workers
b.
an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site
c.
a small youth population
d.
natural boundaries
e.
all of these
61. Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition
and:
a.
communications and transportation systems
b.
purchasing power
c.
political stability
d.
creative differences
e.
product diffusion rate
62. What are the strategies that can be used to minimize or adapt to the political risk inherent to global
business?
a.
protectionist, avoidance, and offensive strategies
b.
creative, cooperative, and defensive strategies
c.
cooperative, customary, and nationalistic strategies
d.
avoidance, protectionist, and guerrilla strategies
e.
control, avoidance, and cooperative strategies
63. Hofstede’s research has shown there are:
a.
no cultural differences among nations in which Spanish is the national language
b.
two distinct methods for dealing with cultural differences—adaptation and continuation
c.
direct relationships existing between type of infrastructures and growth potential
d.
five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries
e.
four factors upon which a company should base its decision to globalize
64. An expatriate is someone who:
a.
claims dual citizenship
b.
lives and works outside of his or her own country
c.
believes strongly in nationalization
d.
is unhappy with his or her present residence
e.
desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
65. __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
a.
Reengineering
b.
Functionalization
c.
Organizational structure
d.
Production positioning
e.
Intraorganizational process
66. One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that
workers should report to just one supervisor.
a.
delegation of command
b.
empowerment
c.
synergistic authority
d.
unity of command
e.
centralization of authority
67. A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company’s
products.
a.
staff
b.
line
c.
mechanistic
d.
organic
e.
charted
68. The core philosophy upon which the job characteristic model is based is:
a.
reciprocity
b.
empathy
c.
autonomy
d.
internal motivation
e.
motivational valences
69. A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and
responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on
centralized authority and vertical communication.
a.
modular
b.
departmentalized
c.
standardized
d.
organic
e.
mechanistic
70. Which of the following statements about open office systems is true?
a.
Open office systems tend to decrease interaction by removing physical barriers that
separate workers.
b.
Open office systems increase the degree of behavioral formality within an office.
c.
Open office systems have much more shared space than private space.
d.
Companies are uniformly enthusiastic about the benefits of open office systems.
e.
All of these statements about open office systems are true.
71. Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others,
__________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or
consultants.
a.
modular organizations
b.
hierarchical organizations
c.
boundaryless organizations
d.
organizational networks
e.
virtual organizations
72. Work teams enhance speed and efficiency when designing and manufacturing new products because
they:
a.
allow departments to work independently of one another
b.
make possible overlapping development phases
c.
fit well with traditional sequential development phases
d.
avoid problems associated with synergy
e.
do all of these
73. Team rewards that depend on __________ are the key to rewarding team behaviors and efforts.
a.
team performance rather than individual performance
b.
individual efforts rather than team performance
c.
someone taking the role of group leader
d.
the elimination of social loafing
e.
the use of groupthink
74. As a member of a typical of traditional work group, Joshua should expect to be responsible for:
a.
doing what he is told to do
b.
giving advice and making suggestions to management
c.
making decisions and solving problems regarding major production/service tasks
d.
cross training employees who are not part of his work team
e.
creating ideas through processes like brainstorming
75. Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization’s structure?
a.
cross-functional teams
b.
project teams
c.
virtual teams
d.
employee involvement teams
e.
none of these
76. Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
a.
2 to 3
b.
6 to 9
c.
15 to 20
d.
more than 20
e.
All sizes tend to perform equally well.
77. How would you respond to the following statement? “Group conflict is always bad.”
a.
Affective conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.
b.
Both a-conflict and c-conflict are harmful, but b-conflict is not.
c.
All cognitive conflict is bad, but all affective conflict is beneficial to the group.
d.
Cognitive conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.
e.
The statement is correct.
78. The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:
a.
localized synergy
b.
bureaucratic immunity
c.
strategic diversity
d.
organizational accommodation
e.
limited cohesiveness
79. __________ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a
team.
a.
Team diversity
b.
Group synergy
c.
Team level
d.
Team conformity
e.
Team performance
80. __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance
gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
a.
Skill-based pay
b.
Gainsharing
c.
A draw account
d.
Profit sharing
e.
Optional equity
81. To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal
employment law apply?
a.
selection decisions
b.
compensation decisions
c.
performance appraisals
d.
training and development activities
e.
all of these
82. A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important
work-related aspects of a job.
a.
job analysis
b.
task evaluation
c.
job specification
d.
job validation
e.
job description
83. __________help companies meet the legal requirement that their human resource decisions be job
related.
a.
Job analyses, task evaluations, and employee-needs assessment
b.
Job descriptions, external environments, and employee mapping
c.
Job specifications, job analyses, and job descriptions
d.
Job analyses, task specializations, and external environments
e.
Internal environments, external environments, and job descriptions
84. Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
a.
specific ability tests
b.
cognitive ability tests
c.
personality tests
d.
achievement tests
e.
work sample tests
85. The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared
ahead of time and asked of all candidates
a.
formalized
b.
structured
c.
semi-structured
d.
scripted
e.
canned
86. Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
a.
behavioral observation scales
b.
sales quotas
c.
production rate
d.
revenues
e.
customer complaints
87. __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
a.
De-employment
b.
Dysfunctional turnover
c.
Reactive turnover
d.
Regressive turnover
e.
A “brain leak”
88. A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that:
a.
diversity requires a wider span of management
b.
diversity has a broader focus
c.
diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
d.
affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies
e.
affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
89. Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
a.
Diversity increases an organization’s retained earnings.
b.
Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
c.
Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would
have been had it not been for discrimination.
d.
Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
e.
Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
90. __________ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each
other to accomplish a common objective.
a.
Social integration
b.
Norm cohesiveness
c.
Social cohesiveness
d.
Integrative focus
e.
Social attraction
91. __________ consists of differences communicated through verbal and nonverbal behaviors, such as
personality and attitudes that are learned only through extended interaction with others.
a.
Organizational plurality
b.
Behavioral diversity
c.
Surface-level diversity
d.
Deep-level diversity
e.
Ego-driven heterogeneity
92. Top managers are more likely to have __________ personalities.
a.
Type A
b.
Theory X
c.
high Mach
d.
low Mach
e.
Type B
93. __________ occurs when one person’s negativism spreads to others.
a.
Negative valence
b.
Negative affectivity
c.
Emotional instability
d.
Positive affectivity
e.
Mood linkage
94. Organizational plurality is consistent with:
a.
the paradigm of commonality
b.
the determination and fairness paradigm
c.
the learning and effectiveness paradigm
d.
the access and legitimacy paradigm
e.
none of these
95. Which of the following paradigms for managing diversity is similar to the business growth advantage
of diversity?
a.
the discrimination and fairness paradigm
b.
the access and legitimacy paradigm
c.
the learning and effectiveness paradigm
d.
the personal integration paradigm
e.
the cultural stereotype paradigm
96. On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
a.
tangible and intangible needs
b.
physiological and psychological needs
c.
higher-order and lower-order needs
d.
extrinsic and intrinsic needs
e.
realized and unrealized needs
97. Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
a.
valences
b.
reinforcement
c.
referents
d.
instrumentality
e.
expectancy
98. According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about
their motivation.
a.
equity, value-added, and instrumentality
b.
valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
c.
expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
d.
instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
e.
expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
99. In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times,
some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
a.
fixed interval
b.
variable interval
c.
fixed ratio
d.
variable ratio
e.
continuous ratio
100. Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
a.
goal congruity
b.
goal commitment
c.
goal valence
d.
goal expectancy
e.
groupthink
101. Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
a.
Feedback should not be specific.
b.
Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
c.
Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be
motivational.
d.
Goals can energize behavior.
e.
None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
102. Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are
central to successful leadership.
a.
initiating structure; consideration
b.
initiating structure; job-centered leadership
c.
employee-centered leadership; consideration
d.
concern for production; job-centered leadership
e.
autonomous; participative
103. Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
a.
team management
b.
middle of the road management
c.
authority-compliance
d.
country club management
e.
none of these
104. Fiedler’s contingency theory assumes:
a.
leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
b.
leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
c.
leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
d.
favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
e.
leaders should be judged according to how they perform—not how their subordinates
perform
105. Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of
leadership?
a.
directive
b.
supportive
c.
participative
d.
charismatic
e.
achievement-oriented
106. According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having
high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility
and put forth extraordinary effort.
a.
directive leadership
b.
supportive leadership
c.
participative leadership
d.
achievement-oriented leadership
e.
empowerment leadership
107. Hershey and Blanchard’s situational theory states that leaders need to adjust their leadership styles to
match:
a.
participative requirements
b.
the corporate culture
c.
the situation
d.
worker readiness
e.
employee responsiveness
108. Transactional leaders:
a.
reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
b.
help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization’s vision
c.
pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
d.
motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
e.
are accurately described by all of these
109. Which of the following leadership theories is most strongly supported by research evidence?
a.
trait theory
b.
Blake and Mouton’s leadership grid
c.
Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s normative decision model
d.
path-goal theory
e.
Fiedler’s contingency theory
110. The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and
information.
a.
downward communication channel
b.
upward communication channel
c.
horizontal communication channel
d.
formal communication channel
e.
informal communication channel
111. The conduit metaphor is a false assumption that:
a.
noise does not have to exist if the communication channel is properly designed
b.
communication channels can transmit error-free messages
c.
encoding and decoding processes will match if the individuals communicating have the
same cultural and social backgrounds
d.
perceptual filters will not interfere with the receivers’ understanding of the message
e.
a defensive bias can be controlled by using open communication channels
112. __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee’s
on-the-job performance or behavior.
a.
Downward guidance
b.
Coaching
c.
Counseling
d.
Leading
e.
Supportive supervision
113. In nonverbal communication, the term __________ refers to movements of the body and face.
a.
kinesics
b.
proxemics
c.
paralanguage
d.
pseudo-language
e.
semiotics
114. In which of the following cases would written communication be preferable to oral communication?
a.
when immediate feedback is needed
b.
when messages are complex and ambiguous
c.
when messages are emotion laden
d.
when messages are very simple
e.
when paralanguage is required
115. __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
a.
Organizational silence
b.
Organizational filtering
c.
Negative grapevining
d.
Lower-level filtering
e.
Communication shutdown
116. One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:
a.
company hotlines
b.
surprise visits
c.
survey feedback
d.
frequent informal meetings
e.
participative management
117. The basic control process begins with:
a.
either benchmarking or keystoning
b.
the establishment of clear standards of performance
c.
the comparison of actual performance to expected performance
d.
problem identification
e.
determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed
expected performance
118. In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________
control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about
the performance.
a.
feedback; concurrent
b.
concurrent; feedback
c.
feedback; feedforward
d.
feedforward; feedback
e.
concurrent; stasis
119. __________ control regulates workers’ performances on the job, while __________ control measures
the results of their efforts.
a.
Input; behavior
b.
Motivation; output
c.
Concertive; normative
d.
Behavior; output
e.
Input; output
120. __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to
evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.
a.
Optimization
b.
Customer churn
c.
Balanced scorecard
d.
Customer defection
e.
Financial ratio analysis
121. Normative controls should be used when:
a.
cause-and-effect relationships are clear
b.
workers have been taught self-control skills
c.
responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
d.
it is necessary to standardize all operations
e.
organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
122. According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest
minimization of waste?
a.
waste prevention and reduction
b.
recycle and reuse
c.
waste treatment
d.
waste disposal
e.
waste remarketing
123. Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
a.
Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
b.
For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
c.
Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing,
storage, retrieval, and communication.
d.
Useful information does not come cheaply.
e.
All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
124. Data mining is the:
a.
automated, electronic capture of data
b.
process of hypothesis testing in large databases
c.
process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
d.
process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
e.
method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
125. Unsupervised data mining is particularly good at identifying:
a.
association or affinity patterns
b.
sequence patterns
c.
predictive patterns
d.
data clusters
e.
all of these
126. Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one
else. They are:
a.
authentication and authorization
b.
authorization and empowerment
c.
delegation and empowerment
d.
encryption and empowerment
e.
authentication and encryption
127. Although firewalls can protect personal computers and network services connected to the corporate
network, people away from their offices who interact with their company networks via the Internet
face a safety risk. Which of the following technologies has proven to be a viable solution to this
problem?
a.
safe software for logic (SSL) encryption
b.
firewall reengineering
c.
secure sockets layer (SSL) encryption
d.
secure logistical LAN (SLL) encryption
e.
virus protected networks (VPNs)
128. To properly secure data and data networks, a manager should use:
a.
virtual private networks
b.
firewalls
c.
authentication and authorization
d.
Web-based SSL encryption
e.
all of these
129. The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
a.
replace the need for intuition in decision making
b.
create a link among authorized data and network users
c.
protect organizational data from hackers
d.
provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
e.
do none of these
130. A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and
publish information using Internet software.
a.
LAN portal
b.
private company network (PCN)
c.
intranet
d.
electronic data sharing system
e.
information network
131. Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
a.
Data and information are the same as knowledge.
b.
Knowledge resides in information.
c.
Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
d.
Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
e.
All of these statements about knowledge are true.
132. The two types of productivity are:
a.
partial productivity and complete productivity
b.
multifactor productivity and partial productivity
c.
individual productivity and departmental productivity
d.
departmental productivity and organizational productivity
e.
organizational productivity and industry productivity
133. Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
a.
productivity = (inputs/outputs)
b.
productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
c.
outputs = (productivity/inputs)
d.
productivity = (outputs/inputs)
e.
inputs = (productivity/outputs)
134. A product’s quality is determined by its:
a.
reliability, homogeneity, and durability
b.
reliability, validity, and effectiveness
c.
serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
d.
durability, reliability, and serviceability
e.
consistency, tangibility, and durability
135. The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:
a.
third party certification
b.
delegation
c.
participative management
d.
customer focus and satisfaction
e.
distinctive competence
136. The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
a.
service recovery
b.
service enhancement
c.
customer focus
d.
customer reengineering
e.
relationship marketing
137. Which of the following types of operations are most dependent on the accuracy of sales forecasts?
a.
project manufacturing
b.
assemble-to-order operations
c.
make-to-order operations
d.
buy–to-sell operations
e.
make-to-stock operations
138. Which of the following is the most flexible manufacturing operation?
a.
project manufacturing
b.
continuous-flow production
c.
line-flow production
d.
batch production
e.
job shops
139. The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:
a.
inventory depreciation
b.
inventory amortization
c.
weeks of supply
d.
multifactor inventory
e.
speed of obsolescence