79. __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
a.
Reengineering
b.
Functionalization
c.
Organizational structure
d.
Production positioning
e.
Intraorganizational process
80. Which of the following types of departmentalization does NOT have a problem with the duplication of
resources?
a.
functional
b.
geographic and matrix
c.
product and customer
d.
customer and functional
e.
geographic
81. Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:
a.
chain of command
b.
empowerment
c.
behavioral informality
d.
reengineering
e.
all of these
82. One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that
workers should report to just one supervisor.
a.
delegation of command
b.
empowerment
c.
synergistic authority
d.
unity of command
e.
centralization of authority
83. A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company’s
products.
a.
staff
b.
line
c.
mechanistic
d.
organic
e.
charted
84. The central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is:
a.
internal motivation
b.
synergy
c.
task identification
d.
time-motion studies
e.
a value-added measure
85. A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and
responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on
centralized authority and vertical communication.
a.
modular
b.
departmentalized
c.
standardized
d.
organic
e.
mechanistic
86. __________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve
dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
a.
Pooling interdependence
b.
Reciprocating interdependence
c.
Reengineering
d.
Repositioning
e.
Manufacturing conversion
87. A human resources specialist who was examining the behavioral informality of an office would be
especially aware of:
a.
the absence of internal motivation
b.
a broad span of management
c.
a high degree of formalization within the office
d.
a mechanistic group structure
e.
spontaneity of interpersonal communications
88. Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others,
__________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or
consultants.
a.
modular organizations
b.
hierarchical organizations
c.
boundaryless organizations
d.
organizational networks
e.
virtual organizations
89. Work teams enhance speed and efficiency when designing and manufacturing new products because
they:
a.
allow departments to work independently of one another
b.
make possible overlapping development phases
c.
fit well with traditional sequential development phases
d.
avoid problems associated with synergy
e.
do all of these
90. As a member of a typical of traditional work group, Joshua should expect to be responsible for:
a.
doing what he is told to do
b.
giving advice and making suggestions to management
c.
making decisions and solving problems regarding major production/service tasks
d.
cross training employees who are not part of his work team
e.
creating ideas through processes like brainstorming
91. Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of
their tasks and work methods?
a.
self-designing teams
b.
sequentially interdependent teams
c.
semi-autonomous work groups
d.
self-managing teams
e.
self-autonomous teams
92. Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization’s structure?
a.
cross-functional teams
b.
project teams
c.
virtual teams
d.
employee involvement teams
e.
none of these
93. What can management do to promote group cohesiveness?
a.
Have the group members engage in nonwork activities together.
b.
Create a special jargon for the group members to use.
c.
Instruct the group members to work in each others’ offices
d.
Limit task interdependence.
e.
Do all of these.
94. Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
a.
2 to 3
b.
6 to 9
c.
15 to 20
d.
more than 20
e.
All sizes tend to perform equally well.
95. How would you respond to the following statement? “Group conflict is always bad.”
a.
Affective conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.
b.
Both a-conflict and c-conflict are harmful, but b-conflict is not.
c.
All cognitive conflict is bad, but all affective conflict is beneficial to the group.
d.
Cognitive conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.
e.
The statement is correct.
96. The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:
a.
localized synergy
b.
bureaucratic immunity
c.
strategic diversity
d.
organizational accommodation
e.
limited cohesiveness
97. __________ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a
team.
a.
Team diversity
b.
Group synergy
c.
Team level
d.
Team conformity
e.
Team performance
98. __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance
gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
a.
Skill-based pay
b.
Gainsharing
c.
A draw account
d.
Profit sharing
e.
Optional equity
99. To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal
employment law apply?
a.
selection decisions
b.
compensation decisions
c.
performance appraisals
d.
training and development activities
e.
all of these
100. A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important
work-related aspects of a job.
a.
job analysis
b.
task evaluation
c.
job specification
d.
job validation
e.
job description
101. Which of the following is an internal recruiting method?
a.
advertising
b.
job fairs
c.
job posting
d.
Internet job sites
e.
walk-ins
102. Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
a.
specific ability tests
b.
cognitive ability tests
c.
personality tests
d.
achievement tests
e.
work sample tests
103. The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared
ahead of time and asked of all candidates
a.
formalized
b.
structured
c.
semi-structured
d.
scripted
e.
canned
104. Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
a.
behavioral observation scales
b.
sales quotas
c.
production rate
d.
revenues
e.
customer complaints
105. A __________ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss,
subordinates, peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
a.
360-degree feedback
b.
performance appraisal iteration
c.
reciprocal appraisal
d.
grapevine appraisal
e.
circular feedback program
106. An ESOP is an:
a.
equitable stock ownership plan
b.
employee stock ownership plan
c.
employee salary option program
d.
equity in salary organizational plan
e.
employer/subordinate organizational profit
107. __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
a.
De-employment
b.
Dysfunctional turnover
c.
Reactive turnover
d.
Regressive turnover
e.
A “brain leak”
108. Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
a.
Diversity increases an organization’s retained earnings.
b.
Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
c.
Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would
have been had it not been for discrimination.
d.
Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
e.
Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
109. __________ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each
other to accomplish a common objective.
a.
Social integration
b.
Norm cohesiveness
c.
Social cohesiveness
d.
Integrative focus
e.
Social attraction
110. __________ consists of differences communicated through verbal and nonverbal behaviors, such as
personality and attitudes that are learned only through extended interaction with others.
a.
Organizational plurality
b.
Behavioral diversity
c.
Surface-level diversity
d.
Deep-level diversity
e.
Ego-driven heterogeneity
111. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
a.
emotional stability
b.
extraversion
c.
conscientiousness
d.
empathy
e.
agreeableness
112. Conscientiousness is:
a.
the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement
oriented
b.
the degree to which someone is curious
c.
the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
d.
the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
e.
defined by none of these
113. Individuals who have __________ tend to work poorly in teams.
a.
authoritarian proclivities
b.
Theory X personalities
c.
low Mach personalities
d.
high Mach personalities
e.
Theory Y personalities
114. Top managers are more likely to have __________ personalities.
a.
Type A
b.
Theory X
c.
high Mach
d.
low Mach
e.
Type B
115. __________ occurs when one person’s negativism spreads to others.
a.
Negative valence
b.
Negative affectivity
c.
Emotional instability
d.
Positive affectivity
e.
Mood linkage
116. Which of the following is a paradigm for managing diversity?
a.
the paradigm of organizational diversity
b.
the Machiavellian paradigm
c.
the learning and effectiveness paradigm
d.
the affirmative action paradigm
e.
the sociocultural paradigm
117. Organizational plurality is consistent with:
a.
the paradigm of commonality
b.
the determination and fairness paradigm
c.
the learning and effectiveness paradigm
d.
the access and legitimacy paradigm
e.
none of these
118. On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
a.
tangible and intangible needs
b.
physiological and psychological needs
c.
higher-order and lower-order needs
d.
extrinsic and intrinsic needs
e.
realized and unrealized needs
119. Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
a.
valences
b.
reinforcement
c.
referents
d.
instrumentality
e.
expectancy
120. According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about
their motivation.
a.
equity, value-added, and instrumentality
b.
valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
c.
expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
d.
instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
e.
expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
121. To use expectancy theory to motivate employees, managers can
a.
assign specific, challenging goals
b.
make all rewards equal in value
c.
avoid overreward and underreward
d.
avoid the use of empowerment
e.
systematically gather information to find out what employees want from their jobs
122. The primary ways for creating reinforcement contingencies in organizations are:
a.
extrinsic rewards and the schedules of reinforcement
b.
extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
c.
perceptions of equity and reward desirability
d.
situational motivators
e.
higher-order needs and organizational structure
123. __________ strengthen behavior (i.e., increase its frequency).
a.
Positive and negative reinforcement
b.
Negative reinforcement and extinction
c.
Positive reinforcement and extinction
d.
Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, and punishment
e.
Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, extinction, and punishment
124. In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, a consequence follows every instance of a behavior.
a.
continuous
b.
intermittent
c.
variable interval
d.
fixed ratio
e.
variable ratio
125. Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
a.
goal congruity
b.
goal commitment
c.
goal valence
d.
goal expectancy
e.
groupthink
126. Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
a.
Feedback should not be specific.
b.
Goals should be general, measurable, and attainable.
c.
Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be
motivational.
d.
Goals can energize behavior.
e.
None of the statements about goal-setting theory is true.
127. __________ create a need for leadership.
a.
Leadership substitutes
b.
Leadership neutralizers
c.
A narrow span of management
d.
Mentors
e.
Leader liaisons
128. Relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of
behavior, form the basis for the __________ of leadership.
a.
situational theory
b.
behavioral theory
c.
trait theory
d.
expectancy theory
e.
path-goal theory
129. Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are
central to successful leadership.
a.
initiating structure; consideration
b.
initiating structure; job-centered leadership
c.
employee-centered leadership; consideration
d.
concern for production; job-centered leadership
e.
autonomous; participative
130. Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
a.
team management
b.
middle of the road management
c.
authority-compliance
d.
country club management
e.
none of these
131. Fiedler’s contingency theory assumes:
a.
leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
b.
leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
c.
leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
d.
favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
e.
leaders should be judged according to how they perform—not how their subordinates
perform
132. Which of the following approaches to implementing Fiedler’s contingency theory in the workplace has
proven effective?
a.
accurately measuring and matching leaders to situations
b.
teaching managers how to change situational favorableness
c.
arbitrary definition of situations
d.
only hiring supervisors with appropriate leadership traits
e.
creating standing plans concerning leader actions and reactions
133. Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of
leadership?
a.
directive
b.
supportive
c.
participative
d.
charismatic
e.
achievement-oriented
134. Hershey and Blanchard’s situational theory states that leaders need to adjust their leadership styles to
match:
a.
participative requirements
b.
the corporate culture
c.
the situation
d.
worker readiness
e.
employee responsiveness
135. The Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model is another name for the:
a.
normative decision theory
b.
contingency theory of leadership
c.
path-goal theory of leadership
d.
situational theory of leadership
e.
trait theory of leadership
136. Transactional leaders:
a.
reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
b.
help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization’s vision
c.
pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
d.
motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
e.
are accurately described by all of these
137. The steps in the basic perception process include all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
attention
b.
organization
c.
analysis
d.
interpretation
e.
retention
138. __________ is the tendency to overestimate our value by attributing successes to ourselves (internal
causes) and attributing failures to others or the environment (external causes).
a.
Closure
b.
A defensive bias
c.
A self-serving bias
d.
The fundamental attribution error
e.
Overreward
139. In the model of the communication process, __________ makes senders aware of possible
miscommunications and enables them to continue communicating until the receiver understands the
intended message.
a.
encoding
b.
noise
c.
transmission
d.
feedback
e.
the communication medium
140. The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as:
a.
downward, horizontal, and upward
b.
hierarchical, functional, and organizational
c.
horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
d.
upward, dyadic, and downward
e.
vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
141. The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and
information.
a.
downward communication channel
b.
upward communication channel
c.
horizontal communication channel
d.
formal communication channel
e.
informal communication channel
142. In the __________ type of grapevine communication network, one “highly connected” individual
shares information with many other managers and workers.
a.
star chain
b.
gossip chain
c.
cluster chain
d.
leader chain
e.
linear
143. __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee’s
on-the-job performance or behavior.
a.
Downward guidance
b.
Coaching
c.
Counseling
d.
Leading
e.
Supportive supervision
144. In which of the following cases would written communication be preferable to oral communication?
a.
when immediate feedback is needed
b.
when messages are complex and ambiguous
c.
when messages are emotion laden
d.
when messages are very simple
e.
when paralanguage is required
145. The first thing that managers need to recognize when communicating feedback one–on-one to
employees is that feedback can be:
a.
constructive or destructive
b.
bureaucratic or participative
c.
regulated or unregulated
d.
formalized or unformalized
e.
extrinsic or intrinsic
146. In monochronic cultures, people:
a.
tend to view time as circular
b.
engage in frequent multitasking
c.
hide their emotions during communications
d.
openly express their emotions during communications
e.
tend to view time as linear
147. __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
a.
Organizational silence
b.
Organizational filtering
c.
Negative grapevining
d.
Lower-level filtering
e.
Communication shutdown
148. One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:
a.
company hotlines
b.
surprise visits
c.
survey feedback
d.
frequent informal meetings
e.
participative management
149. The basic control process begins with:
a.
either benchmarking or keystoning
b.
the establishment of clear standards of performance
c.
the comparison of actual performance to expected performance
d.
problem identification
e.
determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed
expected performance
150. Control is a(n) __________ process.
a.
standardized, periodic, and cybernetic
b.
flexible, intermittent, and automated
c.
standardized, periodic, and robotic
d.
continuous, flexible, and automated
e.
continuous, dynamic, and cybernetic
151. In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________
control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about
the performance.
a.
feedback; concurrent
b.
concurrent; feedback
c.
feedback; feedforward
d.
feedforward; feedback
e.
concurrent; stasis
152. __________ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process.
a.
Control feasibility
b.
Cybernetic feasibility
c.
A quasi-control assessment
d.
A balanced scorecard assessment
e.
Information management
153. The two types of objective controls managers use are:
a.
output and input
b.
administrative and participative
c.
self-control and organizational control
d.
autonomous and individualized
e.
behavior and output
154. __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to
evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.
a.
Optimization
b.
Customer churn
c.
Balanced scorecard
d.
Customer defection
e.
Financial ratio analysis
155. Economic value added (EVA) is so important to workers and managers because it:
a.
eliminates the need for quantitative motivation
b.
encourages the use of participative management techniques
c.
specifies what should be done to improve EVA performance
d.
creates strategic windows
e.
shows whether a business or subset of a business is really making a profit
156. According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest
minimization of waste?
a.
waste prevention and reduction
b.
recycle and reuse
c.
waste treatment
d.
waste disposal
e.
waste remarketing
157. Normative controls should be used when:
a.
cause-and-effect relationships are clear
b.
workers have been taught self-control skills
c.
responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
d.
it is necessary to standardize all operations
e.
organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
158. A company that wants to create a first-mover advantage needs to know that such a strategy can result
in:
a.
limited market share
b.
significant expense
c.
a condition of certainty
d.
a static environment
e.
all of these
159. Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
a.
Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
b.
For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
c.
Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing,
storage, retrieval, and communication.
d.
Useful information does not come cheaply.
e.
All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
160. In the process of capturing information, ASCII text is generated by:
a.
bar codes
b.
electronic scanners
c.
optical character recognition software
d.
e-tools
e.
data mining
161. Data mining is the:
a.
automated, electronic capture of data
b.
process of hypothesis testing in large databases
c.
process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
d.
process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
e.
method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
162. Data clusters:
a.
result from the use of internal data mining
b.
are a statistical technique used for trend analysis
c.
are used to create samples for statistical analyses
d.
occur when three or more database elements occur together in a significant way
e.
are accurately described by all of these
163. Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one
else. They are:
a.
authentication and authorization
b.
authorization and empowerment
c.
delegation and empowerment
d.
encryption and empowerment
e.
authentication and encryption
164. The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
a.
replace the need for intuition in decision making
b.
create a link among authorized data and network users
c.
protect organizational data from hackers
d.
provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
e.
do none of these
165. A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and
publish information using Internet software.
a.
LAN portal
b.
private company network (PCN)
c.
intranet
d.
electronic data sharing system
e.
information network
166. __________ is the direct electronic transmission of purchase and ordering information from one
company’s computer system to another company’s computer system.
a.
Automated processing
b.
Electronic data interchange
c.
Transaction channeling
d.
Data manipulation
e.
Information exchange
167. Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
a.
Data and information are the same as knowledge.
b.
Knowledge resides in information.
c.
Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
d.
Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
e.
All of these statements about knowledge are true.
168. Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
a.
productivity = (inputs/outputs)
b.
productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
c.
outputs = (productivity/inputs)
d.
productivity = (outputs/inputs)
e.
inputs = (productivity/outputs)
169. The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:
a.
third party certification
b.
delegation
c.
participative management
d.
customer focus and satisfaction
e.
distinctive competence
170. Which of the following is NOT a criterion on which companies are judged when applying for the
Baldrige National Quality Award?
a.
leadership
b.
business results
c.
customer and market focus
d.
competitive advantage
e.
process management
171. __________ is a deviation in the form, condition, or appearance of a product from the quality standard
for that product.
a.
Performance breakdown
b.
Quality underperformance
c.
Aberration
d.
Divergence
e.
Variation
172. The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
a.
service recovery
b.
service enhancement
c.
customer focus
d.
customer reengineering
e.
relationship marketing
173. _______ refers to a manufacturing operation that divides manufacturing processes into separate parts
or modules that are combined to create semi-customized products.
a.
Assemble-to-stock
b.
Assemble-to-order
c.
Make-to-order
d.
Make-to-stock
e.
Batch processing
174. Which of the following types of operations are most dependent on the accuracy of sales forecasts?
a.
project manufacturing
b.
assemble-to-order operations
c.
make-to-order operations
d.
buy–to-sell operations
e.
make-to-stock operations
175. Which of the following is the most flexible manufacturing operation?
a.
project manufacturing
b.
continuous-flow production
c.
line-flow production
d.
batch production
e.
job shops
176. The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:
a.
inventory depreciation
b.
inventory amortization
c.
weeks of supply
d.
multifactor inventory
e.
speed of obsolescence
177. Downtime and lost efficiency are both examples of:
a.
ordering costs
b.
setup costs
c.
holding costs
d.
stockout costs
e.
depreciation costs