Post Assessment for All Chapters
TRUE/FALSE
1. The classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3)
organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
2. Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These
desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
3. First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
4. Human relations management focused on managers’ roles and authority.
5. According to the principles of scientific management, work and the responsibility for the work should
be divided equally between workers and management.
6. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth studied the psychology of groups.
7. Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
8. The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all
organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.
9. According to its rate of environmental change, an organization’s environment can be either stable or
dynamic, but not both.
10. Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
11. Under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines, companies can be prosecuted and punished for the
illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn’t know about the unethical
behavior.
12. The stakeholder model holds that the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize
profits.
13. The categories of social responsibility for a company are economic, legal, ethical, and discretionary
14. S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
15. Strategic plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific
goals within its strategic objective.
16. The process of decision making emphasizes the use of systematic procedures to arrive at optimal
solutions.
17. Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
18. Because it is a time-consuming, labor-intensive, and expensive process, the Delphi technique is best
reserved for important long-term issues and problems.
19. There are four conditions that must be met if a firm’s resources are to be used to achieve a sustainable
competitive advantage. The resources must be valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable, and
nonsubstitutable.
20. An analysis of an organization’s external environment begins with an assessment of the company’s
distinctive competencies and core capabilities.
21. Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn’t change much, or
after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
22. Reactors follow the consistent strategy of anticipating and reacting to potential external opportunities
and threats prior to their occurrence.
23. Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
24. The research on technology cycles and technological innovation applies only to high-tech products
developed in the bioengineering, robotics, and computer industries.
25. Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
26. Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines,
bonuses, and praise.
27. Export restraints, government subsidies, and quotas are all examples of nontariff trade barriers.
28. More than any other regional trade agreement, the Maastricht Treaty of Europe liberalizes trade
between countries so that businesses can plan to operate in a single market instead of multiple national
markets.
29. Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
30. The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view
of the organization.
31. The two disadvantages associated with product departmentalization are costly duplication and
difficulties with cross-departmental coordination.
32. Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.
33. Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
34. In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the
problem and generating alternative solutions.
35. Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies,
and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
36. Since teams should be an end in themselves, it is appropriate to use them in most situations.
37. Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants
provide about themselves.
38. The most common work force forecasting method is statistical/historical ratios.
39. The only time that gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they
are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
40. There are no legally mandated employee benefits.
41. Affirmative action and diversity are required by law for all private employers.
42. Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
43. The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control,
and affectivity.
44. In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
45. Once lower-order needs are satisfied, it is difficult to predict which higher-order needs will motivate
behavior.
46. Overreward frequently causes inequity.
47. Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
48. Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation
decisions.
49. Whereas managers tend to have a short-term perspective, leaders tend to have a long-term perspective.
50. Since there are no consistent trait differences between leaders and nonleaders, or between effective and
ineffective leaders, trait theory is wrong.
51. While transformational leaders use visionary and inspirational appeals to influence followers,
transactional leadership is based on an exchange process.
52. In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
53. The self-serving bias is the tendency to overestimate our value by attributing successes to ourselves
(internal causes) and attributing failures to others or the environment (external causes).
54. Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much
more likely to be promoted.
55. In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
56. Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a
month.
57. One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers
should or should not do to improve financial performance.
58. The only dimension needed to measure quality is its conformance to expectations.
59. Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
60. Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to
the person for which the data were gathered.
61. DSS programs can replace managerial decision making.
62. Since the Baldrige Award is directly based on ISO 9000 standards, it is essentially a U.S. version of
recognition for excellence in meeting the ISO 9000 standards.
63. It costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
64. Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in
the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A manager who gets work done with a minimum of waste is increasing the _________ of the
organization
a.
efficiency
b.
effectiveness
c.
functionality
d.
synergy
e.
productivity
2. A manager engaged in the management function of __________ is monitoring progress toward goal
achievement and taking corrective action when needed.
a.
planning
b.
organizing
c.
leading
d.
controlling
e.
motivating
3. Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly
responsible for producing the company’s products or services, are categorized as:
a.
general managers
b.
middle managers
c.
first-line managers
d.
team leaders
e.
top managers
4. Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?
a.
human skills and decisional skills
b.
informational skills and the motivation to manage
c.
conceptual skills and the motivation to manage
d.
conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills
e.
human skills and informational skills
5. Which of the following statements about meta-analysis is true?
a.
Meta-analysis is a statistical technique applicable only in a single research study.
b.
Meta-analysis is of value to all organizational stakeholders.
c.
Statistics generated through meta-analysis cannot be converted to an understandable
format.
d.
Meta-analysis shows the conditions under which management techniques may work better
or worse in the real world.
e.
Meta-analysis only benefits inexperienced managers.
6. According to Mintzberg, which of the following lists the three major roles managers fulfill while
performing their jobs?
a.
interpersonal roles, informational roles, and decisional roles
b.
informational roles, ethical roles, and action roles
c.
corporate roles, coordination roles, and informational roles
d.
decisional roles, informational roles, and organizational roles
e.
interpersonal roles, intrapersonal roles, and departmental roles
7. An accountant with __________ has the ability to create a budget, compare the budget to the actual
income statement, and determine unnecessary expenses.
a.
technical skill
b.
human skill
c.
conceptual skill
d.
motivational skill
e.
interpersonal skill
8. After six months as a manager, new managers typically believe their job is:
a.
to provide negative reinforcement
b.
to exercise formal authority
c.
to maintain control and avoid delegation
d.
people development
e.
to solve problems for subordinates
9. How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?
a.
Managers realized the importance of synergistic tasks.
b.
Managers realized the importance of customer relations.
c.
Low-paid, unskilled workers running machines began to replace high-paid, skilled
artisans.
d.
Skilled jobs were performed in homes rather than in factories.
e.
Managers learned to use delegation.
10. The goal of scientific management was to:
a.
make sure workers did not consider their work boring or repetitive
b.
decreased wages for individual workers
c.
eliminate conflict between workers and management
d.
find the one best way to perform each task
e.
find different ways to motivate workers
11. The Gantt chart:
a.
was a precursor to the organizational chart
b.
is a chart that shows when and where tasks need to be completed so that a job can be
completed in a timely fashion
c.
was an early method for breaking jobs down into their smallest common denominator
d.
was a major tool of scientific managers and is not widely used today
e.
is a method for continuous training of front-line employees
12. Which of the following management theorists helped develop human relations management?
Max Weber
Mary Parker Follett
Henri Fayol
Frederick Taylor
Henry Gantt
13. At about the same time as management theorists were developing scientific management principles in
the United States, Max Weber was in Europe developing:
a.
human relations management
b.
group dynamics theory
c.
systems management
d.
contingency management
e.
bureaucratic management
14. Today thanks to _____, Unverferth, a farm equipment manufacturer, was able to use computer-assisted
design in the development of its new 12-row subsoiler for cotton production.
a.
Henry Ford
b.
Henry Gantt
c.
Gaspard Monge
d.
Eli Whitney
e.
Pietro Beretta
15. Nearly all organizations should be viewed as ______ that interact with their environments and depend
on them for survival.
a.
covert systems
b.
open systems
c.
synergistic subsystems
d.
closed systems
e.
entropic subsystems
16. Which of the following is a component of Volkswagen’s specific environment and will directly
influence how it does business?
a.
Renault, a French car maker
b.
laws concerning air bags
c.
inflation
d.
gasoline prices
e.
the fact consumers are buying fewer SUVs
17. A company facing a simple environment would:
most likely be in the first stage of the environmental cycle
exhibit proof of the punctuated equilibrium theory
be unable to succeed due to lack of innovation
be influenced only by factors in its specific environment
have few external factors in the environment that affect it
18. Changes in any sector of the general environment:
a.
will typically not impact most organizations
b.
tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
c.
inhibit the innovation process
d.
influence customers first and then suppliers
e.
will eventually affect most organizations
19. Technology is the __________ used to transform inputs (raw materials, information, etc.) into outputs
(goods or services).
a.
knowledge, tools, and techniques
b.
knowledge and machinery
c.
plans and machinery
d.
tools and techniques
e.
strategy and tactics
20. An organization engaged in __________ is searching the environment for important events or issues
that might affect an organization.
a.
a competitive assessment
b.
environmental scanning
c.
environmental advocacy
d.
an internal situational analysis
e.
a market audit
21. A key factor influencing the relationship between companies and their suppliers is:
a.
how dependent they are on each other
b.
how much they know about each other
c.
how compatible their organizational cultures are
d.
the type of product being manufactured
e.
all of these
22. The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
a.
industry code of ethics
b.
internal environment
c.
organizational culture
d.
organizational strategy
e.
organizational vision
23. Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to:
create benchmarks
assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
develop new products
locate new markets for existing products
modify corporate culture
24. Which of the following is an example of a mechanism used to sustain organizational culture after an
organization’s founders are gone?
a.
recruiting practices
b.
employee turnover
c.
cultural myths
d.
organizational policies
e.
none of these
25. Employees tend to feel a greater sense of ownership and responsibility in companies with
organizational cultures characterized by:
a.
delegation
b.
adaptability
c.
employee involvement
d.
consistency
e.
managerial empathy
26. Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
a.
how the behavior was motivated
b.
where the motivation occurred
c.
the target of the deviant behavior
d.
the intent of the violator
e.
organizational norms
27. The __________ determined that companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or
unethical actions of employees, even if management didn’t know about the unethical behavior.
a.
U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines
b.
U.S. Supreme Court
c.
U.S. Department of Labor
d.
U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
e.
Federal Trade Commission
28. According to Kohlberg’s model of moral development, people at the __________ make decisions that
conform to societal expectations.
a.
unconventional level
b.
preconventional level
c.
conventional level
d.
postconventional level
e.
amoral level
29. What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
a.
Ethical intensity
b.
Social consensus
c.
Temporal immediacy
d.
Magnitude of consequences
e.
Ethical valence
30. Traditional college students who think about their parents’ and grandparents’ reactions to their
decisions before putting the decision into action are more than likely operating according to which
principle of ethical decision making?
a.
the principle of long-term self-interest
b.
the principle of utilitarian requirements
c.
the principle of distributive justice
d.
the principle of community injunctions
e.
the principle of personal virtue
31. What is social responsibility?
a.
a business’s obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit
society
b.
a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
c.
what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
d.
a business’s responsibility to its shareholders
e.
the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can
satisfy the needs of their customers
32. Which of the following is NOT an example of a stakeholder group that an organization must satisfy to
assure long-term survival?
a.
investors
b.
customers
c.
the media
d.
employees
e.
governments
33. Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
a.
action plans and their implementation
b.
proximal and distal goals
c.
one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
d.
framing and non-framing goals
e.
open-ended and close-ended techniques
34. Top management is responsible for developing long-term:
a.
standing plans
b.
tactical plans
c.
operational plans
d.
strategic plans
e.
mission statements
35. Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry
out_______plans.
a.
single-use
b.
standing
c.
operational
d.
tactical
e.
hierarchical
36. Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
a.
policies
b.
procedures
c.
rules and regulations
d.
forecasts
e.
MBO plans
37. One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision
criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
a.
absolute comparisons
b.
relative comparisons
c.
valences
d.
minimum threshold rule
e.
comparative ranking scales
38. As mangers try to take a rational approach to decision making, they must contend with bounded
rationality, which means they are restricted by:
a.
real-world constraints
b.
benchmarking
methodology validity
information overload
all of these
39. Which of the following statements explains why groups can produce better solutions than individuals
in decision-making situations?
a.
Formal groups have no group norms.
b.
Groups cannot experience information overload.
c.
Groups become committed to solutions they help choose.
d.
Groups take additional time to carefully evaluate all options.
e.
All of these are reasons why groups can produce better solutions than individuals in a
decision-making situation.
40. The first step in the strategy-making process is to:
a.
assess the need for strategic change
b.
conduct a situation analysis
c.
choose strategic alternatives
d.
evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment
e.
create a strategic budget
41. In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for
comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company’s strategic threats and opportunities.
a.
non-industry-specific companies
b.
expert managers
c.
trade journals and other relevant periodicals
d.
other firms within an industry
e.
consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
42. Which of the following is a mechanism used to examine external threats and opportunities facing a
firm as well as its internal strengths and weaknesses?
a.
organizational scanning
b.
internal marketing
c.
shadow-strategy task forces
d.
benchmarking
e.
a situation analysis
43. In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines,
problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be
turned into outputs.
a.
imperfectly imitable resources
b.
valuable resources
c.
distinctive competencies
d.
core capabilities
e.
sources of innovation
44. According to Strategic Reference Point Theory, managers have two basic strategic alternatives. They
are:
a.
risk-avoiding strategy and pioneering strategy
b.
risk-avoiding strategy and risk-seeking strategy
c.
risk-maintenance strategy and conflict-avoidance strategy
d.
frontal attack strategy and guerrilla strategy
e.
none of these
45. The research on diversification in portfolio management indicates that the best approach is probably:
a.
related differentiation
b.
related diversification
c.
unrelated diversification
d.
repositioning
e.
no diversification
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five industry forces that determine an industry’s overall
attractiveness and potential for long-term profitability?
a.
character of rivalry
b.
existing complementary products
c.
bargaining power of suppliers
d.
threat of substitute products
e.
bargaining power of buyers
47. The purpose of __________ strategies is to choose an industry-level strategy that is best suited to
changes in the organization’s external environment.
a.
positioning
b.
differentiation
c.
growth
d.
adaptive
e.
diversification
48. __________ is the knowledge, tools, and techniques used to transform inputs into outputs.
a.
Resource manipulation
b.
Procedural innovation
c.
A transformation system
d.
Technology
e.
Creativity
49. A technology __________ begins with the “birth” of a new technology and ends when that technology
reaches its limits and “dies” as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
a.
process
b.
pattern
c.
cycle
d.
hierarchy