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P* = Pound sterling price of the asset held by the U.S. firm
P = Dollar price of the same asset
The CFO runs a regression of the form P = a + b × S + e
The regression coefficient beta is calculated as b =
Where
Cov(P,S) = 0.25 × ($6,600 − $5,050) × ($2.20 − $2.00)
+ 0.50 × ($5,000 − $5,050) × ($2.00 − $2.00)
+ 0.25 × ($3,600 − $5,050) × ($1.80 − $2.00)
Cov(P,S) = 77.50 + 0 + 72.50
Cov(P,S) = 150
b = = 7,500
The variance of the exchange rate is calculated as
E(S) = 0.25 × $2.20 + 0.50 × $2.00 + 0.25 × $1.80
= $.55 + $1 + $.45
= $2.00
VAR(S) = 0.25($2.20 − $2.00)2 + 0.50($2.00 − $2.00)2 + 0.25($1.80 − $2.00)2
= 0.01 + 0 + 0.01
= 0.02
The expected value of the investment in U.S. dollars is:
E[P] = 0.25 × $6,600 + 0.50 × $5,000 + 0.25 × $3,600 = $5,050
Which of the following is the most effective hedge financial hedge?
A) Sell £7,500 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
B) Buy £7,500 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
C) Sell £2,500 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
D) 0.25 × £3,000 + 0.50 × £2,500 + 0.25 × £2,000 = £2,500
55) Find an effective hedge financial hedge if a U.S. firm holds an asset in Great Britain and
faces the following scenario: