53) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that
began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a
reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin’s
core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the
basis for all of the firm’s decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee’s
uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the
screening process.
Which of the following, if TRUE, would undermine the argument that Red Robin should use
achievement tests in the employee selection process?
A) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college
students with little experience in the restaurant industry.
B) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at
the cash register.
C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and
be aware of ADA requirements.
D) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job
experience in the restaurant industry.
54) An interest inventory compares an applicant’s current interests with the interests of
________.
A) retired workers
B) younger individuals
C) other people in the same industry
D) other people in various occupations
55) Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A) work samples
B) projective tests
C) achievement tests
D) interest inventories
56) A ________ is a simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical
situations and receive scores based on their performance.
A) work sampling event
B) video-based situational
C) miniature job evaluation
D) management assessment center
57) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in
the selection process?
A) Development costs are very low.
B) Line managers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.
C) Minimal time is required for test administration.
D) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process.
58) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the
following EXCEPT ________.
A) individual presentations
B) leaderless group discussions
C) motor skills assessments
D) in-basket
59) Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing
facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also
wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following
would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums?
A) personality tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) assessment centers
D) structured interviews
60) Which of the following tests measures what someone has learned?
A) achievement test
B) job knowledge test
C) cognitive ability test
D) aptitude test
61) Nonperformance or performance is usually the result of all of the following EXCEPT
________.
A) attitude
B) motivation
C) temperament
D) nationality
62) The primary focus of the Global Competencies Inventory is to measure an individual’s
________.
A) cognitive skills
B) level of adaptability
C) ability to learn a foreign language
D) degree of international knowledge
63) Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the
test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.
64) What is a management assessment center? What else can managers use these centers for
besides selection? Provide two examples of typical simulated exercises used in management
assessment centers.
65) An employer wants to learn as much as possible about the cognitive abilities and job-based
knowledge of candidates. What types of personnel tests would the employer most likely use?
What types of interview questions would the employer most likely ask?
66) Why is careful selection important? How can personnel tests and interviews improve the
selection process?
67) What is the first step in conducting an effective interview?
A) studying the job description
B) asking situational questions
C) conducting a background check
D) establishing rapport with candidates
68) Which of the following is a procedure designed to predict future job performance on the
basis of applicants’ oral responses to oral inquiries?
A) management game
B) work sample simulation
C) selection interview
D) management assessment center
69) What type of interview would most likely include the statement, “Tell me about a time when
you worked successfully in a team environment”?
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) subjective
D) puzzle
70) Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational
interview?
A) “Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation.”
B) “How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?”
C) “Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company.
What would you do?”
D) “In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired
anyone before? Tell me how you handled the situation.”
71) What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? “Imagine that
you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition’s biggest client.
How would you proceed?”
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) puzzle
D) stress
72) In a panel interview, a candidate is interviewed in a ________ fashion by a group of
interviewers.
A) serial
B) sequential
C) simultaneous
D) systematic
73) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is
conducted by a team of faculty members who interview him simultaneously and then combine
their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.
A) serial
B) panel
C) sequential
D) mass
74) Consider the following question: “Can you give a work-related example of a specific
instance where you provided leadership?” This is an example of a ________ question.
A) background
B) behavioral
C) situational
D) descriptive
75) Which question below is an example of a background question?
A) “Can you provide an example of a time when you developed a highly effective ad campaign?”
B) “What experience and training have you had with drafting designs for commercial buildings?”
C) “What is the procedure you would follow when examining a patient complaining of chest
pain?”
D) “What steps would you follow to conduct a brainstorming session with a group of employees
on safety?”
76) Which question below is an example of a behavioral question?
A) “What would you do if you were asked a question during a sales presentation for which you
did not know the answer?”
B) “What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?”
C) “What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?”
D) “Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?”
77) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community
has seen an increase in population over the last 2 years, and new neighborhoods are being built
as a result. Marion’s staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent.
Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful
as she had hoped.
Which of the following interview questions would most likely provide Marion with the highest
validity and be the most useful for predicting job performance?
A) What steps do you go through to determine the best listing price for a home?
B) What would you do if your client did not clean his home for an open house?
C) What is the difference between assessed value and appraised value?
D) What do you like and dislike about selling real estate?
78) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community
has seen an increase in population over the last 2 years, and new neighborhoods are being built
as a result. Marion’s staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent.
Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful
as she had hoped.
Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an employee
with extensive knowledge in real estate?
A) How do you handle sellers who believe their home is more valuable than it really is?
B) What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time home buyers?
C) What is the most frustrating aspect of being a realtor?
D) What motivated you to become a real estate agent?
79) Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all
candidates being interviewed?
A) revealing weaknesses
B) managing time
C) expressing interest
D) reducing bias
80) All of the following will most likely improve the structure and effectiveness of an interview
EXCEPT ________.
A) using the same questions for all candidates
B) asking candidates to describe themselves
C) rating candidate answers against a scale
D) basing questions on actual job duties
81) All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT ________.
A) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
B) showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate
C) scheduling a private room for the interview
D) taking brief notes during the interview
82) Research indicates that employers view working mothers negatively, which is why a
maternal wall exists in some workplaces.
83) Studies suggest that interviewers tend to evaluate applicants less favorably in telephone
interviews than in face-to-face interviews.
84) Candidates who make an initial bad impression on an interviewer are typically able to
reverse the situation if they close the interview in a strong manner.
85) Interviewers tend to be more influenced by unfavorable than favorable information about a
candidate.
86) Candidate order error means that the order in which an interviewer sees applicants affects
how the applicants are rated.
87) Situational interviews typically have a lower validity than behavioral interviews in predicting
job performance.
88) During an interview, an interviewer should primarily ask open-ended questions to encourage
candidate self-promotion.
89) The attractiveness of a male job candidate does not affect his promotability, but the
attractiveness of female job candidate strongly affects her career advancement opportunities.
90) How do nonverbal behaviors affect interviewer ratings of candidates?
91) Discuss the two basic types of interviews: structured and unstructured. Which one do you
think is better? Why?
92) What is talent management? What role do profiles play in the selection process?
93) Employers are allowed to conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify
a candidate’s ________.
A) age
B) marital status
C) military discharge status
D) health and disability issues
94) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others
who steal?
A) personality tests
B) interest inventories
C) paper-and-pencil honesty tests
D) graphology
95) Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job
applicants EXCEPT ________.
A) polygraph tests
B) credit checks
C) background checks
D) paper-and-pencil honesty tests
96) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________.
A) numerology
B) astrology
C) handwriting analysis
D) polygraph output assessment
97) Which of the following is TRUE regarding substance abuse screening?
A) All employers are required by federal law to test employees for illegal drugs.
B) Hair follicle tests provide less detailed information than urine samples.
C) Urine sample tests cannot indicate habituation level.
D) Urine sample tests calculate degree of impairment.
98) E-Verify is used by employers to ________.
A) access an applicant’s credit history
B) file an applicant’s income tax information
C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.
D) report an applicant’s work status to the U.S. government
99) The most common verified background areas do NOT include ________.
A) legal eligibility for employment
B) military service
C) education
D) marital status
100) According to the ADA, when is a medical exam permissible?
A) before the initial job interview
B) between the job interview and the job offer
C) between the job offer and the commencement of work
D) after the commencement of work
101) Which of the following would most likely be found in the employment contract for a
marketing executive?
A) benefits information
B) nondisclosure requirements
C) paid leave information
D) job testing requirements
102) Employment screening services are useful in the selection process because they have access
to a job applicant’s credit history and criminal record.
103) Few employers check candidates’ social networking site postings because of potential
lawsuits.
104) What are some of the problems and issues associated with drug testing employees and job
applicants? What is your opinion on workplace drug testing?
105) In one study, traits that characterize highly engaged employees include agreeableness,
emotional stability, achievement orientation, and neuroticism.