CHAPTER 6—EMPLOYEE SELECTION
TRUE/FALSE
1. While the overall selection process is the responsibility of the HR department, line managers often
make the final decision about hiring personnel into their unit.
2. The number of steps in the selection process and their sequence will vary, not only with the
organization, but also with the type and level of jobs to be filled.
3. Because more steps are generally required when filling positions externally, companies often try to
hire within and advertise externally only as a last result.
4. A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is
unreliable.
5. Reliability refers to what a test or other selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
6. Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results, but not to the agreement
between two or more raters.
7. If an organization’s selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures
are valid.
8. Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
9. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important
elements of work behavior.
10. Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the
job for some indefinite period.
11. Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance
data for existing employees.
12. Predictive and concurrent validity are determined by comparing test scores with supervisor
performance ratings.
13. Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.
14. A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates a complete absence of relationship between the predictor and
criterion data.
15. The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure, the greater the chances of hiring individuals
who will be the better performers.
16. According to CareerBuilder, far fewer people lie on application forms relative to their resumes.
17. Interviewers should steer clear of issues such as age, race, marital status, and sexual orientation.
18. Validity generalization refers to averaging validity coefficients from all tests to form a composite
‘general’ validity measure.
19. The closer the content of the selection instrument to actual work samples or behaviors, the higher the
content validity.
20. Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.
21. Asking an applicant for an accounting position to solve accounting problems similar to those
encountered on the job is an example of construct validity.
22. Construct validity refers to the extent to which a selection tool measures a trait, such as intelligence
and anxiety.
23. Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and
systematic means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.
24. On application forms, questions about arrests are not permissible.
25. Firms that operate in more than one state can easily develop one form to use in all locations.
26. Most large companies accept applications online.
27. Online applications can speed up the selection process, combine information, and disseminate
promising leads to hiring managers more efficiently.
28. To protect themselves from hiring potentially bad employees, organizations are encouraged to ask job
applicants about past arrests on biographical information blanks.
29. In highly structured interviews, the interviewer determines the course that the interview will follow as
each question is asked.
30. Structured interviews are less likely than nondirective interviews to be attacked in court.
31. A behavioral description interview focuses on hypothetical situations.
32. Organizations should try to avoid using telephone reference checks because they are less reliable than
written references.
33. An organization must advise and receive written consent from applicants if credit reports will be
requested.
34. In most instances, employers can legally use polygraph tests to screen applicants.
35. “Lie detectors” legally include pencil-and-paper honesty tests in addition to mechanical and electronic
devices.
36. Because of legislation prohibiting their use except in special occupations, use of lie detectors in private
firms is extremely low.
37. Sequential interviews are very common.
38. Most interviews take place in person.
39. Federal courts have significantly expanded the areas of questioning permitted during an interview.
40. Legally, medical examinations can only be given after an offer of employment has been extended.
41. The Americans with Disabilities Act severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations
that employers may use.
42. It is inappropriate to ask men if they are married or have children.
43. A pre-employment test is a subjective measure of behavior.
44. Individuals have a legal right to examine letters of reference about them (unless they waive the right to
do so).
45. Measures of general intelligence, such as IQ tests, are not generally regarded as good predictors of job
performance across a variety of jobs.
46. Extroversion refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious.
47. Personality tests measure such things as agreeableness, extroversion, and openness to experience.
48. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is trusting, amiable, cooperative, and
flexible.
49. Openness to experience refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and
curious.
50. Personality tests can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform
effectively.
51. Physical ability tests tend to predict performance, accidents, and injuries.
52. Because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully
validated on the basis of the essential functions of the job.
53. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has content validity.
54. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has construct validity.
55. Employment interviews can serve as a public relations tool for employers.
56. “Tell me more about your experiences on your last job” is an example of a nondirective interview
question.
57. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate.
58. A situational interview asks the applicant what they actually did in a given situation.
59. Situational interviews ask the applicant how they would respond, while behavioral description
interviews ask the applicant how they did respond.
60. Behavioral description interviews are based on hypothetical situations.
61. Behavioral description interviews appear to be more effective than situational interviews, especially
for higher-level positions.
62. HRM specialists have found that panel interviews lead to higher reliability and faster decision times
than one-to-one interviews.
63. Typically, a computer interview requires candidates to answer a series (75 – 125) of multiple-choice
questions tailored to the job.
64. Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost effectiveness.
65. An interviewer who judges an individual favorably based on one strong point has committed a halo
error.
66. Federal law requires comprehensive background checks for all child care providers, and prohibits
convicted felons from engaging in financial and security-oriented transactions.
67. Police, firefighting and teaching areas appear to be more prone to discrimination litigation.
68. It is much easier to measure what individuals can do than what they will do.
69. In the clinical approach to selection, different evaluators assign different weights to an applicant’s
strengths and weaknesses.
70. The clinical approach to selection eliminates personal biases and stereotypes.
71. The statistical approach to decision making is less objective than the clinical approach.
72. A selection model is compensatory if it requires applicants to achieve some minimum level of
proficiency on all selection dimensions.
73. With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or
she gets a high score on another test.
74. The multiple hurdle model is sequential, in that candidates must score well enough on one measure to
advance on to the next.
75. The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of
applicants.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The final decision to hire an applicant usually belongs to:
a.
the HR recruiter.
b.
the HR manager.
c.
supervisors.
d.
co-workers.
2. The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on:
a.
job specifications.
b.
job design.
c.
manning tables.
d.
the HR manager’s preferences.
3. What is usually the first step in the selection process?
a.
reference check
b.
submission of resume
c.
interviews
d.
background checks
4. Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form?
a.
application date
b.
references
c.
national origin
d.
criminal convictions
5. The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT:
a.
it absolves the organization of legal liability
b.
it is practical
c.
it serves public relations purposes
d.
interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments
6. The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is:
a.
there is no difference, the terms are synonymous
b.
situational interviews are for technical positions, while behavioral description interviews
apply to upper-level management positions
c.
the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is
based upon actual experience
d.
the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is
based upon actual experience
7. The selection procedure usually begins with:
a.
employment tests.
b.
a medical examination.
c.
a supervisory interview.
d.
completion of an application form.
8. During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected:
a.
after the preliminary interview.
b.
after completing the application blank.
c.
after selection test results are received.
d.
at any step in the procedure.
9. Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be:
a.
lengthy and thorough.
b.
quick and efficient.
c.
reliable and valid.
d.
a positive experience for applicants.
10. The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as:
a.
consistency.
b.
reliability.
c.
validity.
d.
conformity.
11. If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as:
a.
having predictive validity.
b.
being reliable.
c.
being redundant.
d.
having content validity.
12. If the data upon which selection decisions are not stable or consistent:
a.
the data can still be reliable
b.
the data may still have content validity
c.
inferences made from the data may have validity, but not the process
d.
the data cannot be valid and cannot be used as predictors
13. The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation except:
a.
criterion-related validity.
b.
content validity.
c.
utility validity.
d.
construct validity.
14. The degree to which inferences drawn from interviews, test scores, and other selection procedures are
supported by evidence (such as good job performance) is termed:
a.
evidential.
b.
accuracy.
c.
reliability.
d.
validity.
15. The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is
an example of:
a.
criterion-related validity.
b.
content validity.
c.
construct validity.
d.
cross-validation.
16. Examples of criteria that can be used to validate selection procedures include all of the following
except:
a.
test scores.
b.
sales figures.
c.
performance appraisals.
d.
quantity and quality of output.
17. Typically, establishing validity is a matter of comparing selection test scores:
a.
to weighted scores on the candidates’ application
b.
to supervisors’ performance ratings
c.
to previous scores done in a similar occupation
d.
before and after hiring
18. Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an
example of:
a.
predictive validity.
b.
concurrent validity.
c.
content validity.
d.
correlational validity.
19. The process in which a test or test battery is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same
population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is
called:
a.
redundancy validation.
b.
repeat validation.
c.
cross-validation.
d.
inferential validation.
20. Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the
technique used in:
a.
predictive validity.
b.
concurrent validity.
c.
content validity.
d.
correlational validity.
21. The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a:
a.
correlation coefficient.
b.
validity indicator.
c.
scale from 1 to 10.
d.
standard deviation.
22. Validity coefficients range from:
a.
0.00 to 1.00
b.
1.00 to 10.00
c.
1.00 to 5.00
d.
-1.00 to +1.00
23. A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates:
a.
a complete lack of correlation
b.
an error in math
c.
a perfect negative correlation
d.
a perfect positive correlation
24. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a.
Where did you go to school?
b.
Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
c.
Where were you born?
d.
Are you legally authorized to work in the United States?
25. ____ require(s) the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job.
a.
The EEOC
b.
Work sample tests
c.
Job knowledge tests
d.
Pre-employment testing
26. According to the “Big Five” factors, ____ means the degree to which someone is talkative, sociable,
active, aggressive, and excitable.
a.
extroversion
b.
agreeableness
c.
conscientiousness
d.
neuroticism
27. The extent to which validity coefficients can be generalized across situations is called:
a.
content validity
b.
validity generalization
c.
cross-validation
d.
predictive validity
28. The type of validity assumed to exist when a selection instrument adequately samples the knowledge
and skills needed to perform a particular job is:
a.
criterion-related validity.
b.
content validity.
c.
construct validity.
d.
concurrent validity.
29. According to the “Big Five” factors, _____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and
organized and perseveres in tasks.
a.
conscientiousness
b.
extroversion
c.
agreeableness
d.
neuroticism
30. Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess?
a.
content validity
b.
construct validity
c.
criterion-related validity
d.
concurrent validity
31. Constructs, or traits, include all of the following except:
a.
intelligence
b.
mechanical comprehension
c.
physical ability
d.
anxiety
32. Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of:
a.
job requirements.
b.
job characteristics.
c.
theories.
d.
constructs.
33. Application forms should be developed carefully and revised as often as necessary, because:
a.
scoring variables need to be adjusted
b.
the EEOC has found that many questions asked are not job-related
c.
most forms are too long
d.
the application must have validity in order for all other employment tests to be valid
34. The purposes served by application forms include all of the following except:
a.
eliminating the need for interviews.
b.
determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements.
c.
providing the basis for interview questions.
d.
offering sources for reference checks.
35. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a.
asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance
b.
asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
c.
asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references
d.
asking the applicant to provide all work experience
36. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a.
indicate whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S.
b.
asking the applicant to disclose any criminal convictions
c.
high school and college attendance with dates
d.
references’ names, addresses, and phone numbers
37. Approximately ______ of private firms drug test their employees.
a.
20 percent
b.
40 percent
c.
50 percent
d.
75 percent