38. ______ of applicants test positive for drugs.
a.
One-third
b.
About one-quarter
c.
Ten percent
d.
Less than five percent
39. Regarding credit reports:
a.
organizations must advise and receive written consent from the applicant if a report will be
requested
b.
organizations can request a report on any employee at any time without consent
c.
organizations do not have to inform applicants if adverse decisions are made based on
information in the report
d.
organizations cannot make adverse decisions based on information in such a report
40. The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants:
a.
is recommended procedure for all potential employees.
b.
should be used only in high-security employment areas.
c.
is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
d.
is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
41. Which of the following test is not covered in the term “lie detector” under the Employee Polygraph
Protection Act?
a.
Polygraph.
b.
Paper-and-pencil honesty test.
c.
Voice stress analyzer.
d.
Deceptograph.
42. A legal means of screening out applicants who pose a security risk is to use a:
a.
polygraph.
b.
paper-and-pencil honesty test.
c.
voice stress analyzer.
d.
deceptograph.
43. Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes except:
a.
job satisfaction.
b.
theft.
c.
absenteeism.
d.
job performance.
44. _____ involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after those applicants have been hired
and have been on the job for a certain period of time.
a.
Concurrent validity
b.
Cross-validation
c.
Predictive validity
d.
Longitudinal validity
45. In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the
applicants.
a.
statistical approach
b.
clinical approach
c.
subjective iterative approach
d.
demonstrated approach
46. The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that:
a.
employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV.
b.
employers may question applicants about their physical suitability for the job.
c.
employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use.
d.
physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
47. Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988:
a.
drugs in the workplace have been prohibited.
b.
employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests.
c.
all employees must submit to drug tests on demand.
d.
applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
48. A pre-employment test is an objective and standardized measure of:
a.
a sample of employee behavior.
b.
applicant‘s goals and desires.
c.
organizational job requirements.
d.
comparisons between job applicants.
49. A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that ___ percent of the applicants will be selected.
a.
.1
b.
1
c.
10
d.
90
50. Measures of mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency, numerical ability, or
reasoning ability are examples of a:
a.
personality and interest inventory.
b.
physical ability test.
c.
cognitive ability test.
d.
job sample.
51. According to a report by the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, a quasijudicial agency that serves
as the guardian of federal merit systems, structured interviews are _____ as nondirective interviews to
predict on-the job performance.
a.
twice as likely
b.
half as likely
c.
just as likely
d.
four times as likely
52. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?
a.
Why did you leave your last job?
b.
Are you a man or a woman?
c.
How much do you weigh?
d.
How tall are you?
53. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?
a.
What is the origin of your name?
b.
What color are your eyes?
c.
Have you ever worked under a different name?
d.
Are you a U.S. citizen?
54. The personality trait of Extroversion refers to:
a.
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
b.
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
c.
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
d.
the degree to which someone is dependable and organized
55. The personality trait of Agreeableness refers to:
a.
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
b.
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
c.
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
d.
the degree to which someone is dependable and organized
56. The personality trait of Conscientiousness refers to:
a.
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
b.
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
c.
the degree to which someone is dependable and organized
d.
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
57. The personality trait of Openness to Experience refers to:
a.
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
b.
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
c.
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
d.
the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious
58. The personality trait of Neuroticism refers to:
a.
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
b.
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
c.
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
d.
the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious
59. Personality tests:
a.
easily demonstrate job-relatedness
b.
can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform
effectively
c.
measure intelligence
d.
measure an applicant’s preference for certain activities over others
60. The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of:
a.
a work sample test
b.
a job knowledge test
c.
a physical ability test
d.
an interest inventory
61. Which of the following types of tests are increasingly being aided by computer simulations?
a.
personality tests
b.
physical ability tests
c.
cognitive ability tests
d.
work sample tests
62. Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons except:
a.
interviews are the most valid method of selection.
b.
interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants.
c.
interviews function as a public relations tool.
d.
interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
63. The type of interview that allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in determining the
course of discussion is the:
a.
nondirective interview.
b.
depth interview.
c.
situational interview.
d.
structured interview.
64. The various types of employment interviews differ primarily in:
a.
length.
b.
amount of structure.
c.
methods for establishing rapport.
d.
the degree to which body language is studied.
65. The type of interview that provides the greatest consistency or standardization with respect to the
questions asked is the:
a.
nondirective interview.
b.
situational interview.
c.
structured interview.
d.
unstructured interview.
66. Questions contained in structured job interviews should be based on:
a.
job analysis.
b.
job design.
c.
job specialization.
d.
job utilization.
67. The interview method that best reduces the possibility of discrimination is the:
a.
behavioral description interview.
b.
panel interview.
c.
situational interview.
d.
structured interview.
68. An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would
respond to it is a:
a.
computer interview.
b.
panel interview.
c.
situational interview.
d.
nondirective interview.
69. “Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee” is an example of a:
a.
behavioral description interview question.
b.
panel interview question.
c.
computer interview question.
d.
closed response interview question.
70. “It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed. You get a
phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What
will you do?” This is an example of a/an ____ question.
a.
computer interview.
b.
panel interview.
c.
situational interview.
d.
nondirective interview.
71. A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for:
a.
lower-level positions
b.
higher-level positions
c.
recent college graduates
d.
first line supervisors
72. The benefits of panel interviews include:
a.
longer decision time
b.
less agreement on ratings
c.
the same benefits as a structured interview
d.
higher reliability because of multiple inputs
73. A type of interview that allows the firm to immediately compare answers to the ideal candidate or
profile without the problems of impression management experienced in face-to-face meetings is:
a.
video interview
b.
computer interview
c.
panel interview
d.
structured interview
74. A type of interview that allows for speed and flexibility, and helps make preliminary assessments
before incurring costs with face-to-face meetings is:
a.
video interview
b.
computer interview
c.
panel interview
d.
structured interview
75. Which of the following is an appropriate interview question?
a.
Have you ever been arrested?
b.
What is your date of birth?
c.
Are you over the age of 18?
d.
Are you a U.S. citizen?
76. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a.
Have you ever worked under a different name?
b.
If hired, can you prove your age?
c.
What is your race?
d.
What is your address?
77. All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview except:
a.
Have you ever been arrested?
b.
Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.?
c.
Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job?
d.
Did you finish school?
78. The selection decision should focus on:
a.
the strategic objectives of the organization.
b.
the personality match of the applicant and the supervisor.
c.
the motivation of the applicant.
d.
both “can-do” and “will-do” factors of the applicant.
79. “Can–Do” factors in selection decisions include:
a.
skills
b.
personality
c.
values
d.
motivation
80. HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions except:
a.
Should the individuals be hired according to their highest potential or according to the
needs of the organization?
b.
What effect will the applicants’ family situation have on job performance?
c.
To what extent should those applicants who are not qualified but qualifiable be
considered?
d.
Should overqualified individuals be considered?
81. Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the ____ approach is considered superior, although
the ____ is the most commonly used.
a.
subjective, qualitative
b.
subjective, quantitative
c.
statistical, clinical
d.
clinical, statistical
82. A selection model that requires an applicant to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all
selection dimensions is referred to as a ____ model.
a.
multiple cutoff
b.
multiple hurdle
c.
compensatory
d.
contingency
83. The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on
quantitative predictors is the:
a.
personal judgment approach.
b.
quantitative approach.
c.
objective approach.
d.
statistical approach.
84. A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and
defensive skills is employing a ____ selection decision model.
a.
multiple hurdle
b.
compensatory
c.
multiple cutoff
d.
clinical
85. A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process, on the condition
that she or he satisfies a score criterion on previous parts of the process is referred to as a ____ model.
a.
multiple cutoff
b.
multiple hurdle
c.
compensatory
d.
contingency
86. A low selection ratio means:
a.
the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low.
b.
there are very few qualified applicants.
c.
only the most promising applicants will be hired.
d.
little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
87. A selection ratio of .10 means that:
a.
only top 10% of the applicants will be given selection tests
b.
only 10% of the applicants will be selected.
c.
only 10% of the applicants have the minimum qualification
d.
only 10% of the vacancies in the organization will be filled
88. In large organization, notifying applicants of the selection decision and making job offers are generally
the responsibility of:
a.
the HR department.
b.
the line manager.
c.
the supervisor.
d.
the industrial relations manager.
89. The “O” in KSAO stands for:
a.
optimal
b.
outside
c.
other factors
d.
obligation
90. Following 9/11 and a rash of corporate scandals, background checks have ______________.
a.
fallen into disfavor
b.
become standard for many corporations
c.
become voluntary
d.
become more inexpensive
91. State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for ___________ if they fail to do adequate
background checks.
a.
over recruiting
b.
staff inflation
c.
deceptive interviewing
d.
negligent hiring
92. Generally, ___________ reference checks are preferable because they save time and provide for
greater candor.
a.
e-mail
b.
fax
c.
telephone
d.
mail
93. One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for _________.
a.
cross-validation
b.
legal challenges
c.
employer misunderstanding
d.
spurious correlation
ESSAY
1. Define the concepts of reliability and validity.
2. Identify steps that organizations must follow when they use credit reports to make employment
decisions.
3. Identify and explain the different types of employment tests.
4. Compare and contrast the following four interview approaches: (1) nondirective interview, (2)
structured interview, (3) situational interview, and (4) behavioral description interview.
5. List and discuss the steps in the hiring process.
ANS:
6. What qualities in interviewers should organizations look for?