A retailer specifically attempts to increase its average sale through carrying
complementary goods and services in _____.
a. cross-merchandising
b. impulse sales
c. scrambled merchandising
d. merchandising
Which computer-based site-selection model generally includes the largest number of
variables?
a. analog
b. gravity
c. regression
d. interactive
Other retailers’ canceled orders, manufacturers’ irregulars and overruns, and
end-of-season items form the core of merchandise at which retail institution?
a. off-price chain
b. box (limited-line) store
c. full-line discount store
d. factory outlet
The fastest-growing form of direct marketing is _____.
a. direct selling
b. vending machines
c. airport retailing
d. Web-based retailing
Which of the following is not an attribute of an effective customer loyalty program?
a. a program where participation rules frequently change
b. a reward that is appealing to customers
c. a data bank that tracks purchases and rewards eligibility
d. an award that is attainable in a reasonable time frame
Fair practice laws are designed to prevent a franchisor from _____.
a. enforcing a tying agreement
b. terminating, canceling, or failing to renew a franchise without sufficient cause
c. incorrectly reporting franchise profits and investments
d. selling additional franchises in a protected territory
A major disadvantage to an isolated store location is that _____.
a. costs such as outside lighting and security cannot be shared
b. rental costs are high
c. leases can restrict store operations
d. neighboring retailers can cause an overstored environment
Small retailers would generally find that it is less costly to use _____ in conducting
retail audits than _____.
a. company audit specialists; outside auditors
b. company audit specialists; company department managers
c. company audit specialists; independent consultants
d. outside auditors; company audit specialists
The use of prototype stores, detailed operating procedures, and the inspection of store
units by chain retailers and franchisors is used to _____.
a. develop and maintain a consistent image
b. reduce operating costs
c. reduce construction costs
d. reduce construction time and start-up costs
Experiential merchandising, solutions selling, and retailer co-branding are tactics used
by retailers to _____.
a. enhance customer satisfaction
b. reduce cognitive dissonance
c. persuade shoppers to spend more time shopping
d. increase scrambled merchandising opportunities
Description buying is most appropriate for _____.
a. breakable, perishable, or expensive items
b. standardized, nonbreakable, and nonperishable merchandise
c. jewelry and art works
d. nonstandardized, breakable, and perishable merchandise
A firm’s asset turnover is 4 and its profit margin is 3.5 percent. Its financial leverage is
6. The firm’s return on assets is _____ percent.
a. 14
b. 18
c. 21
d. 63
A freestanding, interactive electronic computer terminal that displays products and
related information on a video screen is a(n) _____.
a. infomercial
b. Web browser
c. video kiosk
d. point-of-sale terminal
A retail buyer purchases an amount equal to planned sales plus a basic stock in the
_____ method.
a. weeks’ supply
b. basic stock
c. percentage variation
d. stock-to-sales
Moderate-risk items that have been purchased before but not on a regular basis involve
which decision process?
a. impulse purchasing
b. extended decision making
c. limited decision making
d. routine decision making
The best way to describe ethnic and racial groups in terms of consumer lifestyles is by
_____.
a. cultural influences
b. subcultural influences
c. social performance
d. family life cycle
A display window can be best categorized as _____ space.
a. personnel
b. customer
c. selling
d. merchandise
Advertising, public relations, personal selling, and sales promotion are the four
elements of _____.
a. communication channels
b. communication
c. selling
d. promotion
Important economic base data for cities can be found in the _____.
a. Federal Register
b. American Community Survey
c. Census of Population
d. Editor & Publisher Market Guide