Suppose that examination of a pro forma reveals that the fifth year net operating income
(NOI) for an income producing property that you are analyzing is $138,446 (you can
assume that this cash flow occurs at the end of the year). If you estimate the projected
rental growth rate for the property to be 5% per year, determine the projected sale price
of the property at the end of year five if the going-out capitalization rate is 9%.
A. $988,900.00
B. $1,465,037.00
C. $1,538,289.00
D. $1,615,203.00
Given the following information, calculate the Effective Borrowing Cost (EBC). Loan
amount: $175,000, Term: 30 years, Interest rate: 7 %, Payment: $1,164.28, Discount
points: 1, Origination fee: $3,250. Assume the loan is held until the end of year 10.
A. 0.6%
B. 3.8%
C. 7.0%
D. 7.4%
While some property owners choose to perform both the property and asset manager
functions themselves, many commercial property owners choose to employ
professional property managers instead. The property manager works under a
management contract in which the manager is empowered to serve as the owner’s
fiduciary. This type of relationship is more commonly referred to as a(n):
A. agency relationship
B. open listing relationship
C. joint-venture
D. correspondent relationship
When leasing nonresidential properties, owners would prefer to rent exclusively to high
quality tenants. Such owners will tend to seek out companies whose general debt
obligations are rated “investment grade” by one of more of the U.S. rating agencies.
These potential tenants are more commonly referred to as:
A. tenant reps
B. credit tenants
C. tenant mix
D. in-house leasing agents
Changes in the discount rate used to complete net present value analysis can have a
significant impact on the estimated value of the investment and therefore affect the
overall investment decision. As the required internal rate of return (IRR) increases, the
net present value will:
A. decline
B. increase
C. remain the same
D. become zero
Real estate appraisal is often considered “more art than science,” since identifying truly
comparable properties is a subjective process. Therefore, it is essential that a
comparable property transaction at least meets the requirement that it was fairly
negotiated under typical market conditions. Which of the following types of
transactions would be most appropriate for use in the sales comparison approach to
valuation?
A. Commingled business transactions
B. Low-interest financing programs
C. Real estate auctions
D. Arm’s-length transactions
There are a number of ways that a developer can finance the establishment of site
control, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. Which of the following
methodologies calls for only the initial land rent to be paid out before development
actually gets under way?
A. Joint venture
B. Option
C. Contract for deed
D. Ground lease
There are a number of ways in which individual and institutional investors can hold
investments in commercial real estate as a part of their portfolio. One way is to
purchase and hold the title to the actual commercial property, which gives the owner
complete control of the asset. This type of transaction would be considered which of the
following?
A. Direct investment in private commercial real estate equity
B. Indirect investment in private commercial real estate equity
C. Direct investment in private commercial real estate debt
D. Indirect investment in private commercial real estate debt
Property rights created from marriage have a clear implication for real estate
transactions. Which of the following marital property rights gives a spouse a one-half
claim on all property acquired “from the fruits of the marriage?”
A. Dower
B. Curtesy
C. Elective share
D. Community property
Given the following information, compute the effective tax rate for the particular piece
of property in percentage terms. Market value of property: $325,000, Assessed value of
property: $250,000, Exemptions: $50,000, Taxes paid: $5,363.
A. 1.50%
B. 2.35%
C. 1.65%
D. 2.68%
One of the most important requirements of a land description is for it to be
unambiguous. Which of the following methods of property description is the most
unambiguous and is appropriate for use in legal documents?
A. Street Address
B. Tax parcel number
C. Reference to prominent features of the land (e.g. monuments, river banks, roads)
D. Metes and bounds
Suppose you have just purchased your first home for $300,000. At the time of purchase
you could only afford to commit to a down-payment of $15,000. In order to make the
loan, the lender requires you to obtain private mortgage insurance (PMI) on their
behalf. Suppose over time you paid down the principal of the loan to $280,000 and at
that point in time you can no longer make any mortgage payments (i.e., you default on
the loan). If the lender were to foreclose on your property and sell it for $228,000, what
would the lender’s loss of principal be taking into consideration the protection of
mortgage insurance? (Let’s assume that the PMI in this case covers the top 30% of the
loan)
A. $0
B. $52,000
C. $57,000
D. $72,000
Suppose you are starting a Ph.D. program with only $1,000 in your savings account.
The university has agreed to waive your tuition, cover all of your living expenses, and
pay you an additional stipend of $2,000 at the beginning of each month, as long as you
teach one course per semester over the course of five years. If your savings account is
able to earn 5.5% per year for the five years that you will be in this program, how much
will you have accumulated in your savings account by the end of the program if interest
is compounded on a monthly basis?
A. $136,445.94
B. $137,708.75
C. $139, 077.35
D. $139,708.76
Adjustments for physical characteristics are intended to capture the dimensions in
which a comparable property differs physically from the subject property. If the only
physical difference between the subject property and the comparable is that the
comparable does not have a fireplace, which of the following adjustments should take
place?
A. The transaction price of the comparable property should be adjusted downward.
B. The transaction price of the comparable property should be adjusted upward.
C. The transaction price of the subject property should be adjusted downward.
D. The transaction price of the subject property should be adjusted upward.
According to the bid-rent model, which of the following individuals would be the one
most likely to live closest to the central business district (CBD)? (Hint: Assume that
work locations are located adjacent to each other at the center of the CBD)
A. A barista at the local coffee shop who uses a car to commute.
B. A doctor at the city hospital who uses a car to commute.
C. A barista at the local coffee shop who must walk to work.
D. A doctor at the city hospital who must walk to work.
For purposes of federal income taxes, real property is classified into four categories.
With which of the following types of real estate is the investor able to reduce his
taxable income to reflect the wear and tear of a property over time?
A. Personal residence
B. Dealer property
C. Trade or business property
D. Investment property
In constructing a market-defining ‘story,” it is helpful to answer a series of fundamental
questions around which analysis can be built. Which of the following questions is
designed to identify the target market?
A. What is the real estate product under consideration?
B. Who are the customers?
C. What aspects of the product do the customers care about?
D. Who are the competitors?
When lenders charge discount points (prepaid interest) on a loan, what impact does this
have on the loan’s yield?
A. The yield on the loan will increase.
B. The yield on the loan will decrease.
C. The yield on the loan will be unaffected.
D. The yield on the loan automatically becomes zero.
Uncertainty of cash flows can vary significantly across property types. Which of the
following property types is often considered to have the most uncertain expected cash
flows?
A. Multifamily
B. Industrial
C. Office
D. Hospitality
The Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) was originally established to
provide a secondary market for FHA-insured and VA-guaranteed loans. All of the
following statements regarding Fannie Mae are true EXCEPT:
A. Fannie Mae lends money directly to homebuyers
B. Fannie Mae was once a private, self-supporting company with publicly traded stock
that has now been placed into conservatorship by the United States government
following the mortgage crisis of 2007-2008.
C. Fannie Mae fully guarantees timely payment of interest and principal to investors.
D. Fannie Mae is authorized to buy both conventional home loans and
government-sponsored residential mortgages.
The two most important determinants of the classification of an office property are age
and obsolescence. Which of the following classes includes office buildings that are
older and reasonably maintained, but are below current standards for one or more
reasons?
A. Class A office
B. Class B office
C. Class C office
D. Investment grade property
Property rights can be dismantled into lesser bundles, referred to as interests, which can
then be held by different individuals. Interests in real property that include possessions
are referred to as:
A. fixtures
B. townships
C. licenses
D. estates
While fee splitting between cooperating real estate brokers is permitted, RESPA
explicitly prohibits such actions as rebating part of the title insurance premium to the
lender who recommended or required the title insurance. These unearned fees are
commonly referred to as:
A. commissions
B. kickbacks
C. damages
D. specific performance dues
The majority of financing for the acquisition of land for development is most likely to
come from which of the following parties?
A. Developer
B. Banks
C. Pooled equity of a limited liability corporation (LLC)
D. Insurance companies
In an analogy to the stock market, the net operating income of a property can be viewed
as which of the following?
A. Annual dividend expected to be produced by the property
B. Annual return on the value of the property
C. Market value of the property
D. Price-earnings ratio of the property
Throughout the process of originating and selling mortgages, mortgage companies face
a number of risks. Therefore, it is important for a lending institution to evaluate the
risks of mortgage loan default through a process commonly referred to as:
A. mortgage fallout
B. loan servicing
C. warehousing
D. loan underwriting
Utilizing the following information, calculate the housing expense ratio. Monthly
Principal and interest on mortgage loan: $635; Monthly Tax and insurance payments
into escrow: $125; Gross monthly income: $2,500
A. 25.4%
B. 30.4%
C. 44.4%
D. 53.2%
The emergence of mortgage securities propelled the development of mortgage
companies, an entity significantly different from the thrifts and banks that previously
dominated the mortgage landscape. Which of the following parties is responsible for
providing mortgage origination services and initial funding within this new framework?
A. Mortgage banker
B. Mortgage broker
C. Portfolio lender
D. Security analyst
Given the following information, calculate the taxes due on sale for the following fully
taxable sale. Net Sale Proceeds: $1,500,000, Adjustable Basis: $830,000, Depreciation
Recapture: $150,000, Capital Gain Tax: 15%, Depreciation Recapture tax: 25%.
A. $37,500
B. $78,000
C. $100,500
D. $115,500
The City of Grand Rapids installed a new water main on Oak Street. The city then
decided to charge the property owners along Oak Street a proportional cost of the new
water main. If a property owner refuses to pay their proportional share of the cost, the
city may file a(n):
A. property tax lien.
B. assessment lien.
C. general lien.
D. mechanics’ lien.
The going-in cap rate, or overall capitalization rate, is a measure of the relationship
between a property’s current income stream and its price or value. Which of the
following statements regarding cap rates is true?
A. It is a measure of total return since it accounts for future cash flows from operations
and expected appreciation (depreciation) in the market value of the property.
B. It is a discount rate that can be applied to future cash flows.
C. It is analogous to the dividend yield on a common stock.
D. It is the projected rate at which prices will appreciate in the future