A portfolio is said to be immunized if:
a. the present value of the cashflows equals the principal.
b. the duration of the portfolio is equal to the term.
c. the present value of the cashflows is greater than the principal.
d. the duration of the portfolio is equal to the investment horizon.
Callable bonds attract investors because they can be redeemed early.
Why do the DJIA and the S&P 500 have a high correlation?
Like CAPM, APT does not assume a single period investment horizon, no taxes,
borrowing and lending at the RF rate, and investors selecting portfolios based on
expected return and variance.
How is regression analysis used to measure portfolio diversification?
How accurate are professional earnings estimates? Do purely mechanical models give
better results than analysts who add subjective assessment to the data?