Chapter 7: Bonds and Their Valuation
1.
If a firm raises capital by selling new bonds, it could be called the “issuing firm,” and the coupon rate is
generally set
equal to the required rate on bonds of equal risk.
a.
True
b.
False
2.
A call provision gives bondholders the right to demand, or “call for,” repayment of a bond. Typically,
companies call
bonds if interest rates rise and do not call them if interest rates decline.
a.
True
b.
False
3.
Sinking funds are provisions included in bond indentures that require companies to retire bonds on a scheduled
basis prior to their final maturity. Many indentures allow the company to acquire bonds for sinking fund
purposes by either (1) purchasing bonds on the open market at the going market price or (2) selecting the bonds
to be called by a lottery administered by the trustee, in which case the price paid is the bond’s face value.
a.
True
b.
False
4.
A zero coupon bond is a bond that pays no interest and is offered (and initially sells) at par. These bonds
provide
compensation to investors in the form of capital appreciation.
a.
True
b.
False
5.
The desire for floating-rate bonds, and consequently their increased usage, arose out of the experience of the
early
1980s, when inflation pushed interest rates up to very high levels and thus caused sharp declines in the
prices of
outstanding bonds.
a.
True
b.
False
6.
The market value of any real or financial asset, including stocks, bonds, or art work purchased in hope of
selling it at
a profit, may be estimated by determining future cash flows and then discounting them back to the
present.
a.
True
b.
False
7.
The price sensitivity of a bond to a given change in interest rates is generally greater the longer the bond’s
remaining
maturity.
a.
True
b.
False
8.
A bond that had a 20-year original maturity with 1 year left to maturity has more price risk than a 10-year
original
maturity bond with 1 year left to maturity. (Assume that the bonds have equal default risk and equal
coupon rates,
and they cannot be called.)
a.
True
b.
False
9.
Because short-term interest rates are much more volatile than long-term rates, you would, in the real world,
generally be subject to much more price risk if you purchased a 30-day bond than if you bought a 30-year
bond.
a.
True
b.
False
10.
As a general rule, a company’s debentures have higher required interest rates than its mortgage bonds because
mortgage bonds are backed by specific assets while debentures are unsecured.
a.
True
b.
False
11.
Junk bonds are high-risk, high-yield debt instruments. They are often used to finance leveraged buyouts and
mergers,
and to provide financing to companies of questionable financial strength.
a.
True
b.
False
12.
There is an inverse relationship between bonds’ quality ratings and their required rates of return. Thus, the
required
return is lowest for AAA-rated bonds, and required returns increase as the ratings get lower.
a.
True
b.
False
13.
Income bonds pay interest only if the issuing company actually earns the indicated interest. Thus, these
securities
cannot bankrupt a company, and this makes them safer from an investor’s perspective than regular
bonds.
a.
True
b.
False
14.
You are considering 2 bonds that will be issued tomorrow. Both are rated triple B (BBB, the lowest
investment-
grade rating), both mature in 20 years, both have a 10% coupon, neither can be called except for
sinking fund
purposes, and both are offered to you at their $1,000 par values. However, Bond SF has a sinking
fund while Bond
NSF does not. Under the sinking fund, the company must call and pay off 5% of the bonds at
par each year. The
yield curve at the time is upward sloping. The bond’s prices, being equal, are probably not
in equilibrium, as Bond SF,
which has the sinking fund, would generally be expected to have a higher yield
than Bond NSF.
a.
True
b.
False
15.
Floating-rate debt is advantageous to investors because the interest rate moves up if market rates rise. Since
floating-rate debt shifts price risk to companies, it offers no advantages to corporate issuers.
a.
True
b.
False
16.
A bond has a $1,000 par value, makes annual interest payments of $100, has 5 years to maturity, cannot be
called,
and is not expected to default. The bond should sell at a premium if market interest rates are below 10%
and at a
discount if interest rates are greater than 10%.
a.
True
b.
False
17.
You have funds that you want to invest in bonds, and you just noticed in the financial pages of the local
newspaper
that you can buy a $1,000 par value bond for $800. The coupon rate is 10% (with annual payments),
and there are
10 years before the bond will mature and pay off its $1,000 par value. You should buy the bond if
your required
return on bonds with this risk is 12%.
a.
True
b.
False
18.
If the required rate of return on a bond (rd) is greater than its coupon interest rate and will remain above that
rate,
then the market value of the bond will always be below its par value until the bond matures, at which time
its market
value will equal its par value. (Accrued interest between interest payment dates should not be
considered when
answering this question.)
a.
True
b.
False
19.
The prices of high-coupon bonds tend to be less sensitive to a given change in interest rates than low-coupon
bonds,
other things held constant.
a.
True
b.
False
20.
Restrictive covenants are designed primarily to protect bondholders by constraining the actions of managers.
Such
covenants are spelled out in bond indentures.
a.
True
b.
False
21.
Other things equal, a firm will have to pay a higher coupon rate on its subordinated debentures than on its
second
mortgage bonds.
a.
True
b.
False
22.
A bond that is callable has a chance of being retired earlier than its stated term to maturity. Therefore, if the
yield
curve is upward sloping, an outstanding callable bond should have a lower yield to maturity than an
otherwise
identical noncallable bond.
a.
True
b.
False
23.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
You hold two bonds, a 10-year, zero coupon, issue and a 10-year bond that pays a 6% annual coupon. The
same market rate, 6%, applies to both bonds. If the market rate rises from its current level, the zero coupon
bond will experience the larger percentage decline.
b.
The time to maturity does not affect the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in
interest rates.
c.
You hold two bonds. One is a 10-year, zero coupon, bond and the other is a 10-year bond that pays a 6%
annual coupon. The same market rate, 6%, applies to both bonds. If the market rate rises from the current
level, the zero coupon bond will experience the smaller percentage decline.
d.
The shorter the time to maturity, the greater the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change
in interest rates, other things held constant.
e.
The longer the time to maturity, the smaller the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change
in
interest rates.
24.
Which of the following events would make it more likely that a company would call its outstanding callable
bonds?
a.
The company’s bonds are downgraded.
b.
Market interest rates rise sharply.
c.
Market interest rates decline sharply.
d.
The company’s financial situation deteriorates significantly.
e.
Inflation increases significantly.
25.
Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are
noncallable, are as follows:
T-bond = 7.72% A = 9.64%
AAA = 8.72% BBB = 10.18%
The differences in rates among these issues were most probably caused primarily by:
a.
Real risk-free rate differences.
b.
Tax effects.
c.
Default and liquidity risk differences.
d.
Maturity risk differences.
e.
Inflation differences.
26.
Under normal conditions, which of the following would be most likely to increase the coupon rate required for
a bond
to be issued at par?
a.
Adding additional restrictive covenants that limit management’s actions.
b.
Adding a call provision.
c.
The rating agencies change the bond’s rating from Baa to Aaa.
d.
Making the bond a first mortgage bond rather than a debenture.
e.
Adding a sinking fund.
27.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
Sinking fund provisions sometimes turn out to adversely affect bondholders, and this is most likely to occur
if
interest rates decline after the bond was issued.
b.
Most sinking funds require the issuer to provide funds to a trustee, who holds the money so that it will be
available to pay off bondholders when the bonds mature.
c.
A sinking fund provision makes a bond more risky to investors at the time of issuance.
d.
Sinking fund provisions never require companies to retire their debt; they only establish “targets” for the
company to reduce its debt over time.
e.
If interest rates increase after a company has issued bonds with a sinking fund, the company will be less
likely
to buy bonds on the open market to meet its sinking fund obligation and more likely to call them in at
the
sinking fund call price.
28.
Amram Inc. can issue a 20-year bond with a 6% annual coupon at par. This bond is not convertible, not
callable, and
has no sinking fund. Alternatively, Amram could issue a 20-year bond that is convertible into
common equity, may be
called, and has a sinking fund. Which of the following most accurately describes the
coupon rate that Amram would
have to pay on the second bond, the convertible, callable bond with the sinking
fund, to have it sell initially at par?
a.
The coupon rate should be exactly equal to 6%.
b.
The coupon rate could be less than, equal to, or greater than 6%, depending on the specific terms set, but in
the real world the convertible feature would probably cause the coupon rate to be less than 6%.
c.
The rate should be slightly greater than 6%.
d.
The rate should be over 7%.
e.
The rate should be over 8%.
29.
Tucker Corporation is planning to issue new 20-year bonds. The current plan is to make the bonds non–
callable, but
this may be changed. If the bonds are made callable after 5 years at a 5% call premium, how
would this affect their
required rate of return?
a.
Because of the call premium, the required rate of return would decline.
b.
There is no reason to expect a change in the required rate of return.
c.
The required rate of return would decline because the bond would then be less risky to a bondholder.
d.
The required rate of return would increase because the bond would then be more risky to a bondholder.
e.
It is impossible to say without more information.
30.
A 10-year corporate bond has an annual coupon of 9%. The bond is currently selling at par ($1,000). Which of
the
following statements is CORRECT?
a.
The bond’s expected capital gains yield is zero.
b.
The bond’s yield to maturity is above 9%.
c.
The bond’s current yield is above 9%.
d.
If the bond’s yield to maturity declines, the bond will sell at a discount.
e.
The bond’s current yield is less than its expected capital gains yield.
31.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
A zero coupon bond’s current yield is equal to its yield to maturity.
b.
If a bond’s yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond will sell at par.
c.
All else equal, if a bond’s yield to maturity increases, its price will fall.
d.
If a bond’s yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond will sell at a premium over par.
e.
All else equal, if a bond’s yield to maturity increases, its current yield will fall.
32.
A 15-year bond with a face value of $1,000 currently sells for $850. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?
a.
The bond’s coupon rate exceeds its current yield.
b.
The bond’s current yield exceeds its yield to maturity.
c.
The bond’s yield to maturity is greater than its coupon rate.
d.
The bond’s current yield is equal to its coupon rate.
e.
If the yield to maturity stays constant until the bond matures, the bond’s price will remain at $850.
33.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If a bond is selling at a discount, the yield to call is a better measure of return than is the yield to maturity.
b.
On an expected yield basis, the expected capital gains yield will always be positive because an investor
would
not purchase a bond with an expected capital loss.
c.
On an expected yield basis, the expected current yield will always be positive because an investor would not
purchase a bond that is not expected to pay any cash coupon interest.
d.
If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity, and its expected capital gains
yield is zero.
e.
The current yield on Bond A exceeds the current yield on Bond B; therefore, Bond A must have a higher
yield to maturity than Bond B.
34.
Three $1,000 face value, 10-year, noncallable, bonds have the same amount of risk, hence their YTMs are
equal.
Bond 8 has an 8% annual coupon, Bond 10 has a 10% annual coupon, and Bond 12 has a 12% annual
coupon. Bond
10 sells at par. Assuming that interest rates remain constant for the next 10 years, which of the
following statements
is CORRECT?
a.
Bond 8’s current yield will increase each year.
b.
Since the bonds have the same YTM, they should all have the same price, and since interest rates are not
expected to change, their prices should all remain at their current levels until maturity.
c.
Bond 12 sells at a premium (its price is greater than par), and its price is expected to increase over the next
year.
d.
Bond 8 sells at a discount (its price is less than par), and its price is expected to increase over the next year.
e.
Over the next year, Bond 8’s price is expected to decrease, Bond 10’s price is expected to stay the same, and
Bond 12’s price is expected to increase.
35.
A 10-year bond pays an annual coupon, its YTM is 8%, and it currently trades at a premium. Which of the
following
statements is CORRECT?
a.
The bond’s current yield is less than 8%.
b.
If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond’s price will decline over the next year.
c.
The bond’s coupon rate is less than 8%.
d.
If the yield to maturity increases, then the bond’s price will increase.
e.
If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond’s price will remain constant over the next year.
36.
A 12-year bond has an annual coupon of 9%. The coupon rate will remain fixed until the bond matures. The
bond
has a yield to maturity of 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If market interest rates decline, the price of the bond will also decline.
b.
The bond is currently selling at a price below its par value.
c.
If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond’s price one year from now will be lower than it is today.
d.
The bond should currently be selling at its par value.
e.
If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond’s price one year from now will be higher than it is today.
37.
A 10-year Treasury bond has an 8% coupon, and an 8-year Treasury bond has a 10% coupon. Neither is
callable,
and both have the same yield to maturity. If the yield to maturity of both bonds increases by the same
amount, which
of the following statements would be CORRECT?
a.
The prices of both bonds will decrease by the same amount.
b.
Both bonds would decline in price, but the 10-year bond would have the greater percentage decline in price.
c.
The prices of both bonds would increase by the same amount.
d.
One bond’s price would increase, while the other bond’s price would decrease.
e.
The prices of the two bonds would remain constant.
38.
You are considering two bonds. Bond A has a 9% annual coupon while Bond B has a 6% annual coupon. Both
bonds have a 7% yield to maturity, and the YTM is expected to remain constant. Which of the following
statements
is CORRECT?
a.
The price of Bond B will decrease over time, but the price of Bond A will increase over time.
b.
The prices of both bonds will remain unchanged.
c.
The price of Bond A will decrease over time, but the price of Bond B will increase over time.
d.
The prices of both bonds will increase by 7% per year.
e.
The prices of both bonds will increase over time, but the price of Bond A will increase at a faster rate.
39.
Which of the following bonds would have the greatest percentage increase in value if all interest rates in the
economy fall by 1%?
a.
10-year, zero coupon bond.
b.
20-year, 10% coupon bond.
c.
20-year, 5% coupon bond.
d.
1-year, 10% coupon bond.
e.
20-year, zero coupon bond.
40.
Assume that all interest rates in the economy decline from 10% to 9%. Which of the following bonds would
have the
largest percentage increase in price?
a.
An 8-year bond with a 9% coupon.
b.
A 1-year bond with a 15% coupon.
c.
A 3-year bond with a 10% coupon.
d.
A 10-year zero coupon bond.
e.
A 10-year bond with a 10% coupon.
41.
Which of the following bonds has the greatest price risk?
a.
A 10-year $100 annuity.
b.
A 10-year, $1,000 face value, zero coupon bond.
c.
A 10-year, $1,000 face value, 10% coupon bond with annual interest payments.
d.
All 10-year bonds have the same price risk since they have the same maturity.
e.
A 10-year, $1,000 face value, 10% coupon bond with semiannual interest payments.
42.
If its yield to maturity declined by 1%, which of the following bonds would have the largest percentage
increase in
value?
a.
A 1-year zero coupon bond.
b.
A 1-year bond with an 8% coupon.
c.
A 10-year bond with an 8% coupon.
d.
A 10-year bond with a 12% coupon.
e.
A 10-year zero coupon bond.
43.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
All else equal, high-coupon bonds have less reinvestment risk than low-coupon bonds.
b.
All else equal, long-term bonds have less price risk than short-term bonds.
c.
All else equal, low-coupon bonds have less price risk than high-coupon bonds.
d.
All else equal, short-term bonds have less reinvestment risk than long-term bonds.
e.
All else equal, long-term bonds have less reinvestment risk than short-term bonds.
44.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
One advantage of a zero coupon Treasury bond is that no one who owns the bond has to pay any taxes on it
until it matures or is sold.
b.
Long-term bonds have less price risk but more reinvestment risk than short-term bonds.
c.
If interest rates increase, all bond prices will increase, but the increase will be greater for bonds that have
less
price risk.
d.
Relative to a coupon-bearing bond with the same maturity, a zero coupon bond has more price risk but less
reinvestment risk.
e.
Long-term bonds have less price risk and also less reinvestment risk than short-term bonds.
45.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
All else equal, secured debt is more risky than unsecured debt.
b.
The expected return on a corporate bond must be greater than its promised return if the probability of default
is greater than zero.
c.
All else equal, senior debt has more default risk than subordinated debt.
d.
A company’s bond rating is affected by its financial ratios but not by provisions in its indenture.
e.
Under Chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Act, the assets of a firm that declares bankruptcy must be liquidated,
and the sale proceeds must be used to pay off claims against it according to the priority of the claims as
spelled out in the Act.
46.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If the maturity risk premium were zero and interest rates were expected to decrease in the future, then the
yield curve for U.S. Treasury securities would, other things held constant, have an upward slope.
b.
Liquidity premiums are generally higher on Treasury than corporate bonds.
c.
The maturity premiums embedded in the interest rates on U.S. Treasury securities are due primarily to the
fact that the probability of default is higher on long-term bonds than on short-term bonds.
d.
Default risk premiums are generally lower on corporate than on Treasury bonds.
e.
Reinvestment risk is lower, other things held constant, on long-term than on short-term bonds.
47.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
All else equal, senior debt generally has a lower yield to maturity than subordinated debt.
b.
An indenture is a bond that is less risky than a mortgage bond.
c.
The expected return on a corporate bond will generally exceed the bond’s yield to maturity.
d.
If a bond’s coupon rate exceeds its yield to maturity, then its expected return to investors will also exceed its
yield to maturity.
e.
Under our bankruptcy laws, any firm that is in financial distress will be forced to declare bankruptcy and
then
be liquidated.
48.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
b.
If a coupon bond is selling at a discount, its price will continue to decline until it reaches its par value at
maturity.
c.
If interest rates increase, the price of a 10-year coupon bond will decline by a greater percentage than the
price of a 10-year zero coupon bond.
d.
If a bond’s yield to maturity exceeds its annual coupon, then the bond will trade at a premium.
e.
If a coupon bond is selling at a premium, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
49.
A 10-year bond with a 9% annual coupon has a yield to maturity of 8%. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?
a.
If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond’s price one year from now will be higher than its current
price.
b.
The bond is selling below its par value.
c.
The bond is selling at a discount.
d.
If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond’s price one year from now will be lower than its current
price.
e.
The bond’s current yield is greater than 9%.
50.
A Treasury bond has an 8% annual coupon and a 7.5% yield to maturity. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?
a.
The bond sells at a price below par.
b.
The bond has a current yield greater than 8%.
c.
The bond sells at a discount.
d.
The bond’s required rate of return is less than 7.5%.
e.
If the yield to maturity remains constant, the price of the bond will decline over time.
51.
An investor is considering buying one of two 10-year, $1,000 face value, noncallable bonds: Bond A has a 7%
annual
coupon, while Bond B has a 9% annual coupon. Both bonds have a yield to maturity of 8%, and the
YTM is
expected to remain constant for the next 10 years. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
Bond B has a higher price than Bond A today, but one year from now the bonds will have the same price.
b.
One year from now, Bond A’s price will be higher than it is today.
c.
Bond A’s current yield is greater than 8%.
d.
Bond A has a higher price than Bond B today, but one year from now the bonds will have the same price.
e.
Both bonds have the same price today, and the price of each bond is expected to remain constant until the
bonds mature.
52.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If a bond is selling at a discount to par, its current yield will be greater than its yield to maturity.
b.
All else equal, bonds with longer maturities have less price risk than bonds with shorter maturities.
c.
If a bond is selling at its par value, its current yield equals its capital gains yield.
d.
If a bond is selling at a premium, its current yield will be less than its capital gains yield.
e.
All else equal, bonds with larger coupons have less price risk than bonds with smaller coupons.
53.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If a 10-year, $1,000 par, zero coupon bond were issued at a price that gave investors a 10% yield to maturity,
and if interest rates then dropped to the point where rd = YTM = 5%, the bond would sell at a premium over
its $1,000 par value.
b.
If a 10-year, $1,000 par, 10% coupon bond were issued at par, and if interest rates then dropped to the point
where rd = YTM = 5%, we could be sure that the bond would sell at a premium above its $1,000 par value.
c.
Other things held constant, including the coupon rate, a corporation would rather issue noncallable bonds
than
callable bonds.
d.
Other things held constant, a callable bond would have a lower required rate of return than a noncallable
bond
because it would have a shorter expected life.
e.
Bonds are exposed to both reinvestment risk and price risk. Longer-term low-coupon bonds, relative to
shorter-term high-coupon bonds, are generally more exposed to reinvestment risk than price risk.
54.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If the Federal Reserve unexpectedly announces that it expects inflation to increase, then we would probably
observe an immediate increase in bond prices.
b.
The total yield on a bond is derived from dividends plus changes in the price of the bond.
c.
Bonds are generally regarded as being riskier than common stocks, and therefore bonds have higher required
returns.
d.
Bonds issued by larger companies always have lower yields to maturity (due to less risk) than bonds issued
by
smaller companies.
e.
The market price of a bond will always approach its par value as its maturity date approaches, provided the
bond’s required return remains constant.
55.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
b.
If rates fall after its issue, a zero coupon bond could trade at a price above its maturity (or par) value.
c.
If rates fall rapidly, a zero coupon bond’s expected appreciation could become negative.
d.
If a firm moves from a position of strength toward financial distress, its bonds’ yield to maturity would
probably decline.
e.
If a bond is selling at a premium, this implies that its yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate.
56.
Bond X has an 8% annual coupon, Bond Y has a 10% annual coupon, and Bond Z has a 12% annual coupon.
Each
of the bonds is noncallable, has a maturity of 10 years, and has a yield to maturity of 10%. Which of the
following
statements is CORRECT?
a.
If the bonds’ market interest rate remains at 10%, Bond Z’s price will be lower one year from now than it is
today.
b.
Bond X has the greatest reinvestment risk.
c.
If market interest rates decline, the prices of all three bonds will increase, but Z’s price will have the largest
percentage increase.
d.
If market interest rates remain at 10%, Bond Z’s price will be 10% higher one year from today.
e.
If market interest rates increase, Bond X’s price will increase, Bond Z’s price will decline, and Bond Y’s
price
will remain the same.
57.
Bonds A, B, and C all have a maturity of 10 years and a yield to maturity of 7%. Bond A’s price exceeds its
par
value, Bond B’s price equals its par value, and Bond C’s price is less than its par value. None of the bonds
can be
called. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If the yield to maturity on each bond decreases to 6%, Bond A will have the largest percentage increase in its
price.
b.
Bond A has the most price risk.
c.
If the yield to maturity on the three bonds remains constant, the prices of the three bonds will remain the
same
over the next year.
d.
If the yield to maturity on each bond increases to 8%, the prices of all three bonds will decline.
e.
Bond C sells at a premium over its par value.
58.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
10-year, zero coupon bonds have more reinvestment risk than 10-year, 10% coupon bonds.
b.
A 10-year, 10% coupon bond has less reinvestment risk than a 10-year, 5% coupon bond (assuming all else
equal).
c.
The total (rate of) return on a bond during a given year is the sum of the coupon interest payments received
during the year and the change in the value of the bond from the beginning to the end of the year, divided by
the bond’s price at the beginning of the year.
d.
The price of a 20-year, 10% bond is less sensitive to changes in interest rates than the price of a 5-year, 10%
bond.
e.
A $1,000 bond with $100 annual interest payments that has 5 years to maturity and is not expected to default
would sell at a discount if interest rates were below 9% and at a premium if interest rates were greater than
11%.
59.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
The yield to maturity for a coupon bond that sells at a premium consists entirely of a positive capital gains
yield; it has a zero current interest yield.
b.
The market value of a bond will always approach its par value as its maturity date approaches. This holds
true
even if the firm has filed for bankruptcy.
c.
Rising inflation makes the actual yield to maturity on a bond greater than a quoted yield to maturity that is
based on market prices.
d.
The yield to maturity on a coupon bond that sells at its par value consists entirely of a current interest yield;
it
has a zero expected capital gains yield.
e.
The expected capital gains yield on a bond will always be zero or positive because no investor would
purchase
a bond with an expected capital loss.
60.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If a coupon bond is selling at a premium, then the bond’s current yield is zero.
b.
If a coupon bond is selling at a discount, then the bond’s expected capital gains yield is negative.
c.
If a bond is selling at a discount, the yield to call is a better measure of the expected return than the yield to
maturity.
d.
The current yield on Bond A exceeds the current yield on Bond B. Therefore, Bond A must have a higher
yield to maturity than Bond B.
e.
If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
61.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
If two bonds have the same maturity, the same yield to maturity, and the same level of risk, the bonds should
sell for the same price regardless of their coupon rates.
b.
All else equal, an increase in interest rates will have a greater effect on the prices of short-term than long-
term bonds.
c.
All else equal, an increase in interest rates will have a greater effect on higher-coupon bonds than it will
have
on lower-coupon bonds.
d.
If a bond’s yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond’s price must be less than its maturity value.
e.
If a bond’s yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond’s current yield must be less than its coupon
rate.
62.
Bond A has a 9% annual coupon, while Bond B has a 7% annual coupon. Both bonds have the same maturity,
a
face value of $1,000, an 8% yield to maturity, and are noncallable. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?
a.
Bond A’s capital gains yield is greater than Bond B’s capital gains yield.
b.
Bond A trades at a discount, whereas Bond B trades at a premium.
c.
If the yield to maturity for both bonds remains at 8%, Bond A’s price one year from now will be higher than
it
is today, but Bond B’s price one year from now will be lower than it is today.
d.
If the yield to maturity for both bonds immediately decreases to 6%, Bond A’s bond will have a larger
percentage increase in value.
e.
Bond A’s current yield is greater than that of Bond B.
63.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
Two bonds have the same maturity and the same coupon rate. However, one is callable and the other is not.
The difference in prices between the bonds will be greater if the current market interest rate is below the
coupon rate than if it is above the coupon rate.
b.
A callable 10-year, 10% bond should sell at a higher price than an otherwise similar noncallable bond.
c.
Corporate treasurers dislike issuing callable bonds because these bonds may require the company to raise
additional funds earlier than would be true if noncallable bonds with the same maturity were used.
d.
Two bonds have the same maturity and the same coupon rate. However, one is callable and the other is not.
The difference in prices between the bonds will be greater if the current market interest rate is above the
coupon rate than if it is below the coupon rate.
e.
The actual life of a callable bond will always be equal to or less than the actual life of a noncallable bond
with
the same maturity. Therefore, if the yield curve is upward sloping, the required rate of return will be
lower on
the callable bond.
64.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
Senior debt is debt that has been more recently issued, and in bankruptcy it is paid off after junior debt
because the junior debt was issued first.
b.
A company’s subordinated debt has less default risk than its senior debt.
c.
Convertible bonds generally have lower coupon rates than non-convertible bonds of similar default risk
because they offer the possibility of capital gains.
d.
Junk bonds typically provide a lower yield to maturity than investment-grade bonds.
e.
A debenture is a secured bond that is backed by some or all of the firm’s fixed assets.
65.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a.
One disadvantage of zero coupon bonds is that the issuing firm cannot realize any tax savings from the use
of
debt until the bonds mature.
b.
Other things held constant, a callable bond should have a lower yield to maturity than a noncallable bond.
c.
Once a firm declares bankruptcy, it must be liquidated by the trustee, who uses the proceeds to pay
bondholders, unpaid wages, taxes, and legal fees.
d.
Income bonds must pay interest only if the company earns the interest. Thus, these securities cannot
bankrupt
a company prior to their maturity, and this makes them safer to the issuing corporation than
“regular” bonds.
e.
A firm with a sinking fund that gives it the choice of calling the required bonds at par or buying the bonds in
the open market would generally choose the open market purchase if the coupon rate exceeded the going
interest rate.