Assume a two-country two-good two-input model. Let the countries in the model be the
United States and the Rest of the World and the goods be steel and wheat. The two
factors of production are capital and land. Further, the United States is capital-abundant
and steel production is capital-intensive. Suppose, in the absence of trade, the United
States operates at a point on its production-possibility curve where it produces and
consumes 20 units of wheat and 20 units of steel. Once it engages in free trade, the
international price of one unit of steel is two units of wheat. In response to the opening
of trade, the United States moves along its production-possibility curve to a new point
where it produces 30 units of steel and 10 units of wheat. Is the United States better-off
following the opening of trade? Provide a logical proof of your answer.
Answer:
The farmers in country A harvest and sell 150 bushels of wheat at the price of $80 per
bushel. Of the total produce 30 bushels are exported. If the government bans all exports
of wheat, the domestic price of wheat would drop to $60. But the production and sales
would also drop to 120 bushels. So, how much loss would the domestic farmers incur
due to the export ban?
Answer: