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True / False
1. The child savers movement was made up of middle-class civic leaders who helped poor children.
a.
True
b.
False
2. Parens patriae is the notion that your parents have a legal duty to act in the best interests of their children until
they reach the age of 21.
a.
True
b.
False
3. Charles Loring Brace was the philanthropist who developed the Children’s Aid Society.
a.
True
b.
False
4. The efforts of the child savers prompted the development of the first comprehensive juvenile court in 1899.
a.
True
b.
False
5. Early reform schools sought to rehabilitate juvenile offenders.
a.
True
b.
False
6. In the 1960s and 1970s, the US Supreme Court radically altered the juvenile justice system when it issued a series of
decisions that established the right of juveniles to due process of law.
a.
True
b.
False
7. Juveniles do not have the right to an attorney at a hearing to decide whether the case should be transferred to juvenile
court.
a.
True
b.
False
8. The level of evidence for a finding of “juvenile delinquency” is proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
a.
True
b.
False
9. Juveniles do not enjoy the same protection against double jeopardy as do adults.
a.
True
b.
False
10. Juveniles do not have the protection of the Miranda decision: they do not have the right to remain silent during police
interrogation.
a.
True
b.
False
11. Acts such as truancy and running away from home are considered status offenses.
a.
True
b.
False
12. Federal courts have ruled that bail is guaranteed to juveniles.
a.
True
b.
False
13. Under the reverse waiver system, a judge can overrule a mandated waiver and decide that a youth shall be
tried in juvenile court.
a.
True
b.
False
14. Incarceration in a public facility is the most common formal sentence for juvenile offenders.
a.
True
b.
False
15. Most incarcerated juvenile offenders are held for status offenses.
a.
True
b.
False
16. Most juvenile aftercare programs include probation.
a.
True
b.
False
17. There are often three judicial hearings in the juvenile court process.
a.
True
b.
False
18. An excluded offense waiver is where state laws exclude from juvenile court jurisdiction certain offenses that are either
very minor or very serious.
a.
True
b.
False
19. The decision to waive a juvenile to adult criminal court is mostly based on the prosecutor’s and the state’s desire for
deterrence and punishment.
a.
True
b.
False
20. Federal courts have not found it necessary to rule on the issue of a juvenile’s constitutional right to bail.
a.
True
b.
False
21. Courts cannot release to the press identifying information about a juvenile, but they must release information about an
adult offender.
a.
True
b.
False
22. The ability of the parents to be of assistance in disciplining the child is one factor that is significant in police decision
making about juvenile offenders.
a.
True
b.
False
23. US juvenile courts process approximately 1.6 million delinquency cases annually.
a.
True
b.
False
24. The courts have ruled that juveniles are not permitted to be detained before trial for the purposes of protecting that
child’s welfare and the public safety
a.
True
b.
False
25. After police processing, a juvenile goes straight to a juvenile detention facility.
a.
True
b.
False
26. State laws mandate that certain offenses be tried in adult court. The only way to get these offenses back to juvenile
court is with a reverse waiver.
a.
True
b.
False
27. Juveniles held in adult prisons and jails are five times more likely to be victims of attempted sexual assaults and rapes
that those in juvenile facilities.
a.
True
b.
False
28. In re Gault forced the courts to process juvenile offenders within the framework of appropriate constitutional
procedures.
a.
True
b.
False
29. The most commonly used formal sentence for juvenile offenders is institutionalization.
a.
True
b.
False
30. The ratio of minority custody to white custody in the juvenile system is 2.6 to 1.
a.
True
b.
False
Multiple Choice
31. The juvenile justice system developed as a result of:
a.
a desire to help and treat children.
b.
a desire to sanction the children not being punished in criminal justice.
c.
Roman laws.
d.
stare decisis laws.
32. The modern practice of legally separating adult criminals and juvenile offenders can be traced back to two
developments in English custom and law that occurred centuries ago, one of which is::
a.
the Carriers case
b.
Chancery Courts
c.
In re Gault
d.
Parens patriae
33. When did the House of Refuge in New York first open?
a.
1645
b.
1773
c.
1825
d.
1910
34. Which 19th century program was similar to a modern foster home?
a.
The House of Refuge
b.
The Children's Aid Society
c.
The Child Savers United Agency
d.
The typical house of reformation
35. In its early form, what was the burden of proof for verdicts handed down by the juvenile court?
a.
Beyond a reasonable doubt
b.
Reasonable suspicion
c.
Beyond a preponderance of evidence
d.
Absolute certainty
36. Modern development of legally separating adult and juvenile offenders can be traced to two developments in
English custom law, one is?
a.
Legal rights of juveniles
b.
Parens patriae
c.
Psychological treatment of youth
d.
The need for judicial waiver
37. The approach of the early American juvenile court is best described as:
a.
paternalistic
b.
adversarial
c.
investigative
d.
due process oriented
38. What impact did the Supreme Court have on the juvenile justice system in the 1960s and 1970s?
a.
It adopted a hands-off approach on most legal issues.
b.
It adopted a conservative ideology that stressed victims’ rights and punishment.
c.
It adopted a liberal ideology that stressed a need for growth in program scope.
d.
It radically altered the juvenile justice system through ruling that established due process rights for
juveniles that rivaled those in the adult court system.
39. Which of the following is false?
a.
The Supreme Court has established the right of juveniles to receive due process of law.
b.
Juveniles do not have the right to confront witnesses at trial.
c.
Juveniles committing status offenses are not usually placed in secure detention facilities.
d.
The Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 sought to deinstitutionalize status
offenders.
40. The juvenile court labels ungovernable, habitually disobedient, and truant children to be:
a.
status offenders.
b.
juvenile delinquents.
c.
chancery children.
d.
deprived children.
41. Which is a difference between juvenile and adult justice systems?
a.
Discretion is used by police officers, judges, and correctional personnel.
b.
The right to receive the Miranda warning.
c.
Community treatment as a sentencing option.
d.
The constitutional right to a jury trial in all states.
42. About how many juvenile cases are processed and treated annually?
a.
0.5 million
b.
1.0 million
c.
1.5 million
d.
2.0 million
43. Which type of case is most likely to be referred to the juvenile court by the police officer?
a.
A minor dispute between juveniles
b.
School and neighborhood complaints
c.
Cases involving violence
d.
Petty shoplifting
44. What is considered to be the most difficult problem involving incriminatory statements made by juveniles
during the course of police questioning?
a.
Whether the parents have to also be advised of their Miranda rights.
b.
Whether juveniles can intelligently waive their rights.
c.
Whether the language of the warning is too complex for the average teenager.
d.
Whether the police officer should use age-appropriate language when giving the Miranda warning.
45. _____ refers to the screening of cases by the juvenile justice system.
a.
Diversion
b.
Waiver
c.
Detention
d.
Intake
46. What is the most common formal sentence for juveniles?
a.
Release to parental custody
b.
Short-term confinement in a private juvenile facility
c.
Long-term confinement in a state institution
d.
Brief custody at the local jail
47. An adjustment for a juvenile is comparable to a(n) ____ for an adult.
a.
plea bargain
b.
indictment
c.
trial
d.
sentence
48. Once a juvenile has been taken into custody, the child has the same ____ Amendment rights to be free from
unreasonable searches and seizures as an adult does.
a.
First
b.
Fourth
c.
Fifth
d.
Eighth
49. Which best explains the recent surge in the number of juvenile detentions?
a.
An increase in juvenile court cases.
b.
A surge in the number of female violent offenders.
c.
A surge in the number of cases involving drugs and violence.
d.
All of these explain the recent surge in the number of juvenile detentions.
50. A(n) __________ waiver is used when the offense has been automatically waived to the adult court but the
judge uses their discretion to decide whether the youth will benefit from rehabilitation?
a.
judicial
b.
reverse
c.
excluded offense
d.
intake
51. In which case did the court hold that the waiver proceeding is a critically important stage in the juvenile
justice process and that juveniles must be afforded minimum requirements of due process of law at such
proceedings?
a.
Kent v. United States
b.
McKiever v. Pennsylvania
c.
Breed v. Jones
d.
New Jersey v. T.L.O.
52. Which judicial hearing in the juvenile court process is similar to arraignment in the adult system?
a.
Fact-finding hearing
b.
Probationary hearing
c.
Initial appearance hearing
d.
Disposition hearing
53. Under the _________ waiver system, the prosecutor has the discretion of filing charges for certain
legislatively designated offenses in either juvenile or criminal court.
a.
direct file
b.
excluded offense
c.
judicial
d.
reverse
54. What happens during the fact-finding hearing?
a.
Evidence is heard.
b.
The offender is adjudicated.
c.
A bail decision is made.
d.
The case is screened by probation officers.
55. Which best describes a recent reform of juvenile sentencing?
a.
Some jurisdictions have passed mandatory or determinate incarceration sentences for juveniles
convicted of serious felonies.
b.
Making a concerted effort to remove status offenders from the juvenile justice system and restricting
their entry into institutional programs.
c.
Effort has been made to standardize dispositions in juvenile court.
d.
All of these represent recent reforms related to juvenile sentencing.
56. Deinstitutionalization efforts are principally focused on _____ offenses.
a.
drug
b.
property
c.
delinquency
d.
status
57. What stage in the juvenile justice process is designed to help youths make the transition from residential or
institutional settings back into the community?
a.
Intake
b.
Detention
c.
Disposition
d.
Aftercare
