Chapter 7: Atomic Structure and Periodicity
1. When ignited, a uranium compound burns with a green flame. The wavelength of the light
given off by this flame is greater than that of
A)
red light
B)
infrared light
C)
radio waves
D)
ultraviolet light
E)
none of these
2. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelengths?
A)
gamma rays
B)
microwaves
C)
radio waves
D)
infrared radiation
E)
x-rays
3. Which of the following frequencies corresponds to light with the longest wavelength?
A)
3.00 1013 s–1
B)
4.12 105 s–1
C)
8.50 1020 s–1
D)
9.12 1012 s–1
E)
3.20 109 s–1
4. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
A)
wavelength –
B)
frequency –
C)
speed of light – c
D)
hertz – s–1
E)
x-rays – shortest wavelength
5. When a strontium salt is ignited, it burns with a red flame. The frequency of the light given
off by this flame is greater than
A)
yellow light
B)
infrared light
C)
ultraviolet light
D)
radio waves
E)
x-rays
6. A line in the spectrum of atomic mercury has a wavelength of 254 nm. When mercury emits
a photon of light at this wavelength, the frequency of this light is
A)
8.47 10–16 s–1
B)
7.82 10–19 s–1
C)
1.18 1015 s–1
D)
76.1 s–1
E)
none of these
7. What is the wavelength of a photon of red light (in nm) whose frequency is 4.55 1014 Hz?
A)
659 nm
B)
1.52 106 nm
C)
152 nm
D)
455 nm
E)
none of these
8. The SI unit for frequency is cycles per second.
9. Green light can have a wavelength of 543 nm. The energy of a photon of this light is
A)
1.08 10–31 J
B)
5.43 10–7 J
C)
3.66 10–19 J
D)
5.52 1014 J
E)
2.73 1018 J
10. Consider an atom traveling at 1% of the speed of light. The de Broglie wavelength is found
to be 1.46 10–3 pm. Which element is this?
A)
Be
B)
Zr
C)
Kr
D)
Fe
E)
P
11. Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength, the greatest
energy, and the highest frequency?
A)
Ultraviolet radiation.
B)
Infrared radiation.
C)
Visible red light.
D)
Visible blue light.
E)
None, because short wavelength is associated with low energy and low frequency,
not high energy and high frequency.
12. What is the energy of a photon of blue light that has a wavelength of 453 nm?
A)
4.53 10–7 J
B)
4.39 10–19 J
C)
6.62 1014 J
D)
9.00 10–32 J
E)
2.28 1018 J
13. How many of the following is/are incorrect?
i. The importance of the equation E = mc2 is that energy has mass.
ii. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called photons.
iii. Electromagnetic radiation exhibits wave properties.
iv. Energy can only occur in discrete units called quanta.
A)
0
B)
1
C)
2
D)
3
E)
4
14. Electrons have wave properties.
A)
observation a
B)
observation b
C)
observation c
D)
observation d
E)
observation e
15. Electromagnetic radiation has wave characteristics.
A)
observation a
B)
observation b
C)
observation c
D)
observation d
E)
observation e
16. Electrons in atoms have quantized energies.
A)
observation a
B)
observation b
C)
observation c
D)
observation d
E)
observation e
17. Spacing between atoms in a crystal is on the same order as the de Broglie wavelength of
accelerated electrons.
A)
observation a
B)
observation b
C)
observation c
D)
observation d
E)
observation e
18. Diffraction results when light is scattered from a regular array of points or lines.
19. All matter exhibits either particulate or wave properties exclusively.
20. The four lines observed in the visible emission spectrum of hydrogen tell us that:
A)
The hydrogen molecules they came from have the formula H4.
B)
We could observe more lines if we had a stronger prism.
C)
There are four electrons in an excited hydrogen atom.
D)
Only certain energies are allowed for the electron in a hydrogen atom.
E)
The spectrum is continuous.
21. In an investigation of the electronic absorption spectrum of a particular element, it is found
that a photon having = 500 nm provides just enough energy to promote an electron from
the second quantum level to the third. From this information, we can deduce
A)
the energy of the n = 2 level
B)
the energy of the n = 3 level
C)
the sum of the energies of n = 2 and n = 3
D)
the difference in energies between n = 2 and n = 3
E)
all of these
Consider the following portion of the energy-level diagram for hydrogen:
n = 4
–0.1361 10–18 J
n = 3
–0.2420 10–18 J
n = 2
–0.5445 10–18 J
n = 1
–2.178 10–18 J
22. For which of the following transitions does the light emitted have the longest wavelength?
A)
n = 4 to n = 3
B)
n = 4 to n = 2
C)
n = 4 to n = 1
D)
n = 3 to n = 2
E)
n = 2 to n = 1
23. In the hydrogen spectrum, what is the wavelength of light associated with the n = 3 to
n = 1 electron transition?
A)
3.97 10–25 nm
B)
8.21 102 nm
C)
9.75 106 cm
D)
1.94 10–18 m
E)
1.03 10–7 m
24. The wavelength of light associated with the n = 2 to n = 1 electron transition in the hydrogen
spectrum is 1.216 10–7 m. By what coefficient should this wavelength be multiplied to
obtain the wavelength associated with the same electron transition in the Li2+ ion?
A)
1/9
B)
1/7
C)
1/4
D)
1/3
E)
1
25. When a hydrogen electron makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 1, which of the following
statements is true?
I.
Energy is emitted.
II.
Energy is absorbed.
III.
The electron loses energy.
IV.
The electron gains energy.
V.
The electron cannot make this
transition.
A)
I, IV
B)
I, III
C)
II, III
D)
II, IV
E)
V
26. What is the wavelength of light that is emitted when an excited electron in the hydrogen
atom falls from n = 5 to n = 1?
A)
1.05 107 m
B)
9.50 10–8 m
C)
2.09 10–18 m
D)
9.12 10–8 m
E)
none of these
27. Which of the following is a reasonable criticism of the Bohr model of the atom?
A)
It makes no attempt to explain why the negative electron does not eventually fall
into the positive nucleus.
B)
It does not adequately predict the line spectrum of hydrogen.
C)
It does not adequately predict the ionization energy of the valence electron(s) for
elements other than hydrogen.
D)
It does not adequately predict the ionization energy of the first energy level
electrons for one-electron species for elements other than hydrogen.
E)
It shows the electrons to exist outside of the nucleus.
28. When an electron in a 2p orbital of a particular atom makes a transition to the 2s orbital, a
photon of approximate wavelength 629.1 nm is emitted. The energy difference between
these 2p and 2s orbitals is
A)
3.16 10–28 J
B)
3.16 10–19 J
C)
3.16 10–17 J
D)
1.25 10–31 J
E)
none of these
29. The energy of the light emitted when a hydrogen electron goes from n = 2 to n = 1 is what
fraction of its ground-state ionization energy?
A)
3/4
B)
1/2
C)
1/4
D)
1/8
E)
1/9
30. In Bohr’s atomic theory, when an electron moves from one energy level to another energy
level more distant from the nucleus:
A)
Energy is emitted.
B)
Energy is absorbed.
C)
No change in energy occurs.
D)
Light is emitted.
E)
None of these.
31. Which of the following is incorrect?
A)
The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains a continuum of colors.
B)
Diffraction produces both constructive and destructive interference.
C)
All matter displays both particle and wavelike characteristics.
D)
Niels Bohr developed a quantum model for the hydrogen atom.
E)
The lowest possible energy state of a molecule or atom is called its ground state.
32. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
I.
An excited atom can return to its ground state by absorbing electromagnetic
radiation.
II.
The energy of an atom is increased when electromagnetic radiation is emitted
from it.
III.
The energy of electromagnetic radiation increases as its frequency increases.
IV.
An electron in the n = 4 state in the hydrogen atom can go to the n = 2 state by
emitting electromagnetic radiation at the appropriate frequency.
V.
The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are inversely
proportional to each other.
A)
II, III, IV
B)
III, V
C)
I, II, III
D)
III, IV, V
E)
I, II, IV
33. Bohr’s model correctly describes the hydrogen atom and other small atoms.
34. A gamma ray of wavelength 1.00 10–8 cm has enough energy to remove an electron from
a hydrogen atom.
35. Which of the following statements best describes the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?
A)
The exact position of an electron is always uncertain.
B)
The velocity of a particle can only be estimated.
C)
It is impossible to accurately know both the exact location and momentum of a
particle.
D)
The location and momentum of a macroscopic object are not known with certainty.
E)
The location and momentum of a particle can be determined accurately, but not the
identity of the particle.
36. Which of the following best describes an orbital?
A)
space where electrons are unlikely to be found in an atom
B)
space which may contain electrons, protons, and/or neutrons
C)
the space in an atom where an electron is most likely to be found
D)
small, walled spheres that contain electrons
E)
a single space within an atom that contains all electrons of that atom
37. Which of the following is not determined by the principal quantum number, n, of the
electron in a hydrogen atom?
A)
The energy of the electron.
B)
the minimum wavelength of the light needed to remove the electron from the atom.
C)
The size of the corresponding atomic orbital(s).
D)
The shape of the corresponding atomic orbital(s).
E)
All of the above are determined by n.
38. How many f orbitals have the value n = 3?
A)
0
B)
3
C)
5
D)
7
E)
1
39. How many f orbitals have n = 6?
A)
2
B)
7
C)
10
D)
5
E)
18
40. If n = 2, how many orbitals are possible?
A)
3
B)
4
C)
2
D)
8
E)
6
41. A given set of p orbitals consists of ______ orbitals.
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
E)
5
42. Which of the following is an incorrect designation for an atomic orbital?
A)
1s
B)
3d
C)
1p
D)
4f
E)
6s
43. The number of orbitals having a given value of l is equal to
A)
2l + 1
B)
2n + 2
C)
3l
D)
l + ml
E)
the number of lobes in each orbital
44. The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of the orbital in space relative to
the other orbitals in the atom.
45. Consider the following representation of a 2p-orbital:
Which of the following statements best describes the movement of electrons in a p-orbital?
A)
The electrons move along the outer surface of the p–orbital, similar to a “figure 8”
type of movement.
B)
The electrons move within the two lobes of the p-orbital, but never beyond the
outside surface of the orbital.
C)
The electrons are concentrated at the center (node) of the two lobes.
D)
The electrons are only moving in one lobe at any given time.
E)
The electron movement cannot be exactly determined.
46. A point in the wave function where the amplitude is zero defines
A)
the node
B)
the excited state
C)
the amplitude of the wave function
D)
the frequency of radiation
E)
none of the above
47. The size of an orbital is arbitrarily defined.
48. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2?
A)
2
B)
5
C)
10
D)
18
E)
6
49. How many electrons can be described by the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 3, ml = 1?
A)
0
B)
2
C)
6
D)
10
E)
14
50. How many electrons can be contained in all of the orbitals with n = 4?
A)
2
B)
8
C)
10
D)
18
E)
32
51. What is the l quantum number for a 4s orbital?
A)
1
B)
0
C)
3
D)
2
E)
more than one of the above
52. Which of the following could not be a valid ml quantum number for a 4d orbital?
A)
2
B)
0
C)
–2
D)
1
E)
4
53. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4, l = 2?
A)
14
B)
12
C)
5
D)
10
E)
6
54. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) do not represent
permissible solutions of the Schrödinger equation for the electron in the hydrogen atom (i.e.,
which combination of quantum numbers is not allowed)?
A)
9, 8, -4, 1/2
B)
8, 2, 2, 1/2
C)
6, -5, -1, 1/2
D)
6, 5, -5, 1/2
E)
All are allowed.
55. If l = 3, how many electrons can be contained in all the possible orbitals?
A)
7
B)
6
C)
14
D)
10
E)
5
56. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowed?
A)
n = 1, l = 1, ml = 0, ms =
B)
n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = –
C)
n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms =
D)
n = 4, l = 3, ml = -2, ms = –
E)
n = 4, l = 2, ml = 0, ms =
57. The small, but important, energy differences between 3s, 3p, and 3d orbitals are due mainly
to
A)
the number of electrons they can hold
B)
their principal quantum number
C)
the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
D)
the penetration effect
E)
Hund’s rule
58. Who was the first chemist to recognize patterns in chemical properties of the elements?
A)
Mendeleev
B)
Newlands
C)
Meyer
D)
Dobereiner
E)
Bohr
59. Mendeleev is given the most credit for the concept of a periodic table of the elements
because:
A)
He had the longest history of research in elemental properties.
B)
He emphasized its usefulness in predicting the existence and properties of
unknown elements.
C)
His representation of the table was the most understandable.
D)
His periodic table was arranged in octaves.
E)
He grouped elements into triads of similar properties.
60. Which of the following was not an elemental property usually predicted by Mendeleev for
as-yet-unknown elements?
A)
electron configuration
B)
atomic mass
C)
density
D)
boiling point
E)
oxide formula
61. Which of the following atoms or ions has three unpaired electrons?
A)
N
B)
O
C)
Al
D)
S2–
E)
Ti2+
62. The electron configuration for the barium atom is:
A)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
B)
[Xe]6s2
C)
1s22s22p63s23p64s1
D)
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
E)
none of these
63. The electron configuration for the carbon atom is:
A)
1s22s22p2
B)
[He]2s4
C)
[Ne]2s22p2
D)
1s22p4
E)
none of these
64. The complete electron configuration of tin is
A)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105d105p2
B)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d104p2
C)
1s22s22p63s23p64s24p65s24d105d105p2
D)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p2
E)
none of these
65. Which of the following statements about quantum theory is incorrect?
A)
The energy and position of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously.
B)
Lower energy orbitals are filled with electrons before higher energy orbitals.
C)
When filling orbitals of equal energy, two electrons will occupy the same orbital
before filling a new orbital.
D)
No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers.
E)
All of these are correct.
66. Which of the following statements is true?
A)
The exact location of an electron can be determined if we know its energy.
B)
An electron in a 2s orbital can have the same n, l, and ml quantum numbers as an
electron in a 3s orbital.
C)
Ni has two unpaired electrons in its 3d orbitals.
D)
In the buildup of atoms, electrons occupy the 4f orbitals before the 6s orbitals.
E)
Only three quantum numbers are needed to uniquely describe an electron.
67. Which of the following statements is false?
A)
An orbital can accommodate at most two electrons.
B)
The electron density at a point is proportional to 2 at that point.
C)
The spin quantum number of an electron must be either + or –.
D)
A 2p orbital is more penetrating than a 2s; i.e., it has a higher electron density near
the nucleus and inside the charge cloud of a 1s orbital.
E)
In the usual order of filling, the 6s orbital is filled before the 4f orbital.
68. The statement that “the lowest energy configuration for an atom is the one having the
maximum number of unpaired electrons allowed by the Pauli principle in a particular set of
degenerate orbitals” is known as
A)
the aufbau principle
B)
Hund’s rule
C)
Heisenberg uncertainty principle
D)
the Pauli exclusion principle
E)
the quantum model
69. An element has the electron configuration [Kr] 5s24d105p2. The element is a(n)
A)
nonmetal
B)
transition element
C)
metal
D)
lanthanide
E)
actinide
70. An element E has the electron configuration [Kr] 5s24d105p2. The formula for the fluoride of
E is most likely
A)
EF14
B)
EF4
C)
EF
D)
EF6
E)
EF8
71. An element with the electron configuration [Xe] 6s24f145d7 would belong to which class on
the periodic table?
A)
transition elements
B)
alkaline earth elements
C)
halogens
D)
rare earth elements
E)
none of the above
72. All alkaline earths have the following number of valence electrons:
A)
1
B)
3
C)
6
D)
2
E)
none of these
73. Ti has __________ in its d orbitals.
A)
one electron
B)
two electrons
C)
three electrons
D)
four electrons
E)
none of these
74. Germanium has __________ in its 4p orbitals.
A)
one electron
B)
two electrons
C)
three electrons
D)
four electrons
E)
none of these
75. Fe has __________ that is (are) unpaired in its d orbitals.
A)
one electron
B)
two electrons
C)
three electrons
D)
four electrons
E)
none of these
Nitrogen has five valence electrons. Consider the following electron arrangements.
2s
2p
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
76. Which represents the ground state for N?
A)
option a
B)
option b
C)
option c
D)
option d
E)
option e
77. Which represents the ground state for the N– ion?
A)
option a
B)
option b
C)
option c
D)
option d
E)
option e
78. In which group do all the elements have the same number of valence electrons?
A)
P, S, Cl
B)
Ag, Cd, Ar
C)
Na, Ca, Ba
D)
P, As, Se
E)
none of these
79. An atom of fluorine contains nine electrons. How many of these electrons are in s orbitals?
A)
2
B)
4
C)
6
D)
8
E)
none
80. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of sulfur in its ground state?
A)
0
B)
1
C)
2
D)
3
E)
4
81. Of the following elements, which has occupied d orbitals in its ground-state neutral atoms?
A)
Ba
B)
Ca
C)
Si
D)
P
E)
Cl
82. Of the following elements, which needs three electrons to complete its valence shell?
A)
Ba
B)
Ca
C)
Si
D)
P
E)
Cl