Unlock document.
This document is partially blurred.
Unlock all pages and 1 million more documents.
Get Access
1. While the overall selection process is the responsibility of the HR department, line managers often make the final
decision about hiring personnel into their unit.
a.
True
b.
False
2. The number of steps in the selection process and their sequence will vary, not only with the organization, but also with
the type and level of jobs to be filled.
a.
True
b.
False
3. As more steps are generally required when filling positions externally, companies often try to hire within and advertise
externally only as a last resort.
a.
True
b.
False
4. A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is unreliable.
a.
True
b.
False
5. Reliability refers to what a test or other selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
a.
True
b.
False
6. Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results but are not consistent with one another.
a.
True
b.
False
7. If an organization's selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures are valid.
a.
True
b.
False
8. Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
a.
True
b.
False
9. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important elements of work
behavior.
a.
True
b.
False
10. Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the job for some
indefinite period.
a.
True
b.
False
11. Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance data of existing
employees.
a.
True
b.
False
12. Concurrent validity is determined by comparing the applicant's test scores with the supervisor's performance ratings.
a.
True
b.
False
13. Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.
a.
True
b.
False
14. A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates a complete absence of relationship between the predictor and criterion data.
a.
True
b.
False
15. The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure is, the greater the chances are of hiring individuals who will be
the better performers.
a.
True
b.
False
16. According to the job board CareerBuilder, fewer people lie on application forms relative to their resumes.
a.
True
b.
False
17. Interviewers should steer clear of issues such as age, race, marital status, and sexual orientation.
a.
True
b.
False
18. The closer the content of the selection instrument is to actual work samples or behaviors, the greater its content
validity.
a.
True
b.
False
19. Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.
a.
True
b.
False
20. Asking an accountant applicant to solve accounting problems similar to those encountered on the job is an example of
construct validity.
a.
True
b.
False
21. Construct validity refers to the extent to which a selection tool measures a trait, such as intelligence and anxiety.
a.
True
b.
False
22. Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and systematic
means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.
a.
True
b.
False
23. On application forms, questions about arrests are not permissible.
a.
True
b.
False
24. Firms that operate in more than one state can easily develop one form to use in all locations.
a.
True
b.
False
25. Most large companies accept applications online.
a.
True
b.
False
26. A key advantage of accepting applications online is that companies can recruit candidates and fill their job openings
much faster.
a.
True
b.
False
27. To protect themselves from hiring potentially bad employees, organizations are encouraged to ask job applicants about
past arrests on biographical information blanks.
a.
True
b.
False
28. In highly structured interviews, the interviewer determines the course that the interview will follow as each question is
asked.
a.
True
b.
False
29. Structured interviews are less likely than nondirective interviews to be attacked in court.
a.
True
b.
False
30. A behavioral description interview focuses on hypothetical situations.
a.
True
b.
False
31. Organizations should try to avoid using telephone reference checks because they are less reliable than written
references.
a.
True
b.
False
32. In most instances, employers can legally use polygraph tests to screen applicants.
a.
True
b.
False
33. "Lie detectors" legally include pencil-and-paper honesty tests in addition to mechanical and electronic devices.
a.
True
b.
False
34. Because of legislation prohibiting their use except in special occupations, use of lie detectors in private firms is
extremely low.
a.
True
b.
False
35. Sequential interviews are very common.
a.
True
b.
False
36. Most interviews take place in person.
a.
True
b.
False
37. Federal courts have significantly expanded the areas of questioning permitted during an interview.
a.
True
b.
False
38. Legally, medical examinations can be administered to an applicant before he or she has been made a conditional
employment offer.
a.
True
b.
False
39. The Americans with Disabilities Act severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations that employers
may use.
a.
True
b.
False
40. It is inappropriate for an interviewer to ask men if they are married or have children.
a.
True
b.
False
41. A pre-employment test is a subjective measure of behavior.
a.
True
b.
False
42. Based on the Privacy Act of 1974, individuals have a legal right to examine reference documentation about them.
a.
True
b.
False
43. Measures of general intelligence, such as IQ tests, are not generally regarded as good predictors of job performance
across a variety of jobs.
a.
True
b.
False
44. Extroversion refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious.
a.
True
b.
False
45. Personality tests measure such things as agreeableness, extroversion, and openness to experience.
a.
True
b.
False
46. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is trusting, amiable, cooperative, and flexible.
a.
True
b.
False
47. Openness to experience refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious.
a.
True
b.
False
48. Personality tests can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively.
a.
True
b.
False
49. Physical ability tests tend to predict performance, accidents, and injuries.
a.
True
b.
False
50. Because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully validated on the
basis of the essential functions of the job.
a.
True
b.
False
51. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has content validity.
a.
True
b.
False
52. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has construct validity.
a.
True
b.
False
53. Employment interviews can serve as a public relations tool for employers.
a.
True
b.
False
54. "Tell me more about your experiences on your last job" is an example of a nondirective interview question.
a.
True
b.
False
55. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate.
a.
True
b.
False
56. A situational interview asks the applicant what they actually did in a given situation.
a.
True
b.
False
57. Situational interviews ask the applicant how they would respond, while behavioral description interviews ask the
applicant how they did respond.
a.
True
b.
False
58. Behavioral description interviews are based on hypothetical situations.
a.
True
b.
False
59. Behavioral description interviews appear to be more effective than situational interviews, especially for higher-level
positions.
a.
True
b.
False
60. HRM specialists have found that panel interviews lead to higher reliability and shorter decision-making period than
one-to-one interviews.
a.
True
b.
False
61. Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost effectiveness.
a.
True
b.
False
62. Federal law requires comprehensive background checks for all child care providers and prohibits convicted felons
from engaging in financial and security-oriented transactions.
a.
True
b.
False
63. Police, firefighting, and teaching areas appear to be more prone to discrimination litigation.
a.
True
b.
False
64. It is much easier to measure what individuals can do than what they will do.
a.
True
b.
False
65. In the clinical approach to selection, different evaluators assign different weights to an applicant's strengths and
weaknesses.
a.
True
b.
False
66. The clinical approach to selection eliminates personal biases and stereotypes.
a.
True
b.
False
67. The statistical approach to decision making is less objective than the clinical approach.
a.
True
b.
False
68. A selection model is compensatory if it requires applicants to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all
selection dimensions.
a.
True
b.
False
69. With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or she gets a high
score on another test.
a.
True
b.
False
70. The multiple hurdle model is a sequential strategy in which only the applicants with the highest scores at an initial test
stage go on to subsequent stages.
a.
True
b.
False
71. The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of applicants.
a.
True
b.
False
72. The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on:
a.
job specifications.
b.
the biographical data set.
c.
manning tables.
d.
the HR manager's preferences.
73. What is usually the first step in the selection process?
a.
Reference check
b.
Submission of resume
c.
Interviews
d.
Background checks
74. Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form?
a.
Application date
b.
References
c.
National origin
d.
Criminal convictions
75. The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT:
a.
it absolves the organization of legal liability.
b.
it is practical.
c.
it serves public relations purposes.
d.
interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments.
76. The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is that:
a.
there is no difference, the terms are synonymous.
b.
the situational interview is for technical positions, while the behavioral description interview applies to upper-
level management positions.
c.
the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual
experience.
d.
the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is based upon actual
experience.
77. During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected:
a.
after the preliminary interview.
b.
after completing the application blank.
c.
after selection test results are received.
d.
at any step in the procedure.
78. Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be:
a.
lengthy and thorough.
b.
quick and efficient.
c.
reliable and valid.
d.
a positive experience for applicants.
79. The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as:
a.
consistency.
b.
reliability.
c.
validity.
d.
conformity.
80. If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as:
a.
having predictive validity.
b.
being reliable.
c.
being redundant.
d.
having content validity.
