1. In context of the work environment, learning:
a. takes place through formal training programs.
b. is primarily the cognitive activity of acquiring knowledge.
c. is ad hoc and accidental.
d. is primarily a change in behavior acquired through experience.
2. The behaviorist approach to learning assumes that observable behavior is a function of:
a. both the person and the environment.
b. external cues.
c. its consequences.
d. the interaction between the affect and cognitive components of an individual.
3. In the animal learning research by Pavlov, the sound of the bell was the:
a. conditioned response.
b. unconditioned response.
c. conditioned stimulus.
d. unconditioned stimulus.
4. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of classical conditioning?
a. Humans are more complex and less amenable to simple cause-and-effect conditioning.
b. Behavioral environments in organizations are complex and not very amenable to single stimulus-response
manipulations.
c. Unconditioned responses and unconditioned stimulus have not been connected in humans.
d. Complex human decision making makes it possible to override simple conditioning.
5. The process of modifying behavior so that a conditioned stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus and elicits
an unconditioned response is known as:
a. operant conditioning.
b. classical conditioning.
c. reinforcement.
d. learning.
6. A person working at a computer terminal may get lower back tension as a result of poor posture. If the person
becomes aware of that tension only when the manager enters the work area, then the person may develop lower
back tension as a response to the appearance of the manager. This scenario would be an example of:
a. operant conditioning.
b. classical conditioning.
c. paired reinforcement.
d. behavior modification.
7. A form of operant conditioning that has been used successfully to shape organizational behavior is known as:
a. job enrichment.
b. organizational behavior development.
c. employee empowerment.
d. organizational behavior modification.
8. Which of the following is a form of operant conditioning?
a. Expectancy theory
b. The expectation-performance-reward-satisfaction chain
c. The attempt by a supervisor to satisfy higher order needs of employees through participation
d. Organizational behavior modification
9. The process of modifying behavior through the use of positive or negative consequences following specific
behaviors is known as .
a. classical conditioning
b. Pavlovian conditioning
c. Skinner’s Integrated Model of conditioning
d. operant conditioning
10. Reinforcement and punishment represent:
a. the extinction method used to encourage a behavior.
b. the positive and negative consequences of behavior.
c. task-specific self-efficacy.
d. the strategy of withholding a positive consequence.
11. A manager who reduces an employee’s pay if the employee comes to work late and refrains from doing so when
the employee is on time has:
a. positively reinforced the employee’s on–time behavior.
b. negatively reinforced the employee’s on–time behavior.
c. utilized extinction to reduce the undesirable behavior.
d. None of these
12. An employee does not respond to the sarcastic comments of a coworker but compliments him for constructive
comments. Which of the following statements is true of this scenario?
a. The colleague is using extinction and negative reinforcement.
b. The colleague is using positive and negative consequences.
c. The colleague is using only positive consequences.
d. The colleague is using extinction and positive reinforcement.
13. As a supervisor you decide to use positive reinforcement to increase the probability that desired job performance
will be repeated. All of the following are appropriate as positive reinforcement except:
a. salary increase after evaluation.
b. promotion after several outstanding performance reviews.
c. releasing employee to go home early but providing full pay.
d. no response or feedback when employee fails to complete task on time.
14. The schedule of reinforcement that produces an uneven response pattern varying from a very slow, unenergetic
response immediately following reinforcement to a very fast, vigorous response immediately preceding
reinforcement is known as .
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
15. A non-response approach that weakens a behavior is known as .
a. punishment
b. negative reinforcement
c. intermittent reinforcement
d. extinction
16. One of your employees periodically fails to clean up his work area at the end of the work shift. Instead of issuing
punishment or discipline, you decide to try an extinction approach to the situation. Accordingly, you might:
a. reassign the worker to a less desirable job.
b. fire the worker.
c. clean up the employee’s work area yourself.
d. ignore the worker’s undesirable actions for a while.
17. The appropriate consequence for an employee who steals company property is:
a. no discipline.
b. termination.
c. intermittent discipline.
d. fixed ratio reinforcement.
18. In the context of schedules of reinforcement, if a random number of responses must be emitted before
reinforcement occurs, it is a schedule.
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio
19. As an outcome for exceptional performance, Jeffery was provided the opportunity to make an important
presentation to the board of directors. However, Jeffery was extremely nervous and upset about the presentation.
This consequence was viewed by Jeffery as .
a. a negative consequence
b. a positive consequence
c. extinction
d. punishment
20. Central to Bandura’s social learning theory is the concept of .
a. self–monitoring
b. classical conditioning
c. task-specific self-efficacy
d. continuous reinforcement
21. Social learning theory is based on the belief that:
a. learning occurs because of behavioral consequences.
b. learning occurs based on group norms.
c. learning is strongly connected to need based drives and the fulfillment of personal needs.
d. learning occurs through the observation of other people and the modeling of their behavior.
22. The strongest way for an employee to develop self-efficacy is to:
a. develop an internal locus of control.
b. develop a high degree of self-monitoring.
c. use the extinction method.
d. succeed at a challenging task.
23. An individual’s internal expectancy to perform a particular assignment successfully is known as .
a. self-esteem
b. external locus of control
c. self–monitoring behavior
d. task-specific self-efficacy
24. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the four sources of task-specific self-efficacy critical to the
social learning theory of Albert Bandura?
a. Prior experiences
b. Witnessing the success of others
c. Current financial status
d. Assessment of current physical and emotional capabilities
25. Intuitors, in terms of learning, prefer:
a. to search for practical applications.
b. interpersonal involvement.
c. specific, empirical data.
d. theoretical frameworks.
26. The process of establishing desired results that guide and direct behavior is known as .
a. classical conditioning
b. goal setting
c. outcome instrumentality
d. extinction
27. All of the following are generally considered to be good characteristics of work goals except:
a. specific.
b. time–bound.
c. measurable.
d. moderately difficult.
28. Outcome (or performance) feedback is greatly facilitated by:
a. closed-end goals.
b. open-ended goals.
c. quantitative goals.
d. peer competitive goals.
29. Which of the following has NOT been shown to moderate the relationship between goal difficulty and task
performance?
a. Goal commitment
b. Effective performance feedback
c. Low self-monitor
d. Required skills and abilities
30. Starbucks’ bold goal of recycling 100% of their cups by 2012 meets all of the following of the SMART criteria
except:
a. time-bound.
b. realistic.
c. measurable.
d. specific.
31. As a supervisor, you can enhance the performance of your employees by:
a. setting their goals for them.
b. closely controlling their work behavior.
c. allowing them to participate in goal setting.
d. giving them easy goals.
32. An important intermediate step between goal acceptance and goal accomplishment is:
a. behavior/reward contingencies.
b. goal clarity.
c. goal commitment.
d. goal specificity.
33. An important function of goal setting is:
a. reducing role stress by clarifying the task-role expectations.
b. reducing cultural differences among employees coming from different backgrounds.
c. minimizing performance evaluations.
d. decreasing motivation.
34. Management by objectives is a goal-setting and performance-planning program developed by .
a. Albert Bandura
b. B.F. Skinner
c. J. Willard Marriott
d. Peter Drucker
35. The process of defining, measuring, appraising, providing feedback on, and improving performance is known as
_____.
a. Management by Objectives
b. a control system
c. performance management
d. performance appraisal
36. The first step in the performance measurement process is:
a. rewarding positive performance behaviors.
b. measuring performance.
c. defining performance in behavioral terms.
d. assessing the impact of performance behaviors.
37. Performance appraisal is used for all of the following except:
a. evaluating employee work behavior.
b. making promotion and other reward decisions.
c. identifying employee developmental needs.
d. selecting persons from a pool of job applicants.
38. The major function(s) of performance appraisal include:
a. to provide feedback on performance.
b. to identify developmental needs.
c. to make promotion and reward decisions.
d. all of these.
39. The evaluation of a medical doctor’s performance on interpersonal skills to complement necessary technical
diagnostic and treatment skills reflects which characteristic of performance?
a. The qualitative and quantitative dimensions of performance
b. The multidimensional nature of performance in most work settings
c. The importance of setting difficult but achievable goals
d. The need to be specific in setting goals
40. If two supervisors evaluated an employee’s performance using the same set of rating scales but arrived at different
conclusions or results, the evaluation instrument is:
a. invalid.
b. biased.
c. unreliable.
d. sufficient.
41. All of the following are problems that contribute to the inaccuracy of performance appraisals except:
a. deficiency.
b. unreliability.
c. invalidity.
d. recording.
42. Performance feedback is more likely to lead to increased job performance when it is:
a. constructive and specific.
b. provided in written form only.
c. not recorded.
d. one–way communication.
43. A key criticism of self-evaluations is:
a. the decrease in commitment to organizational goals.
b. they have not been shown to lead to more satisfying and constructive evaluation interviews.
c. they often conflict with supervisory evaluations.
d. they have been shown to have no relationship to improving job performance.
44. Which of the following is NOT true of the characteristics of 360-degree feedback?
a. It is a tactic to improve the accuracy of performance appraisals.
b. When combined with self-evaluations, there is a high level of agreement with supervisory evaluations.
c. It provides a well-rounded view of performance from superiors, peers, followers, and customers.
d. High levels of agreement may not necessarily be desirable if the intent of the 360-degree evaluation is to
provide a full picture of an individual’s performance.
45. As part of a performance appraisal, companies develop employees and enhance careers through:
a. electronic performance monitoring.
b. self-evaluation.
c. coaching and counseling.
d. empathetic listening.