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CHAPTER 53—POPULATION INTERACTIONS AND COMMUNITY ECOLOGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. If cowbird eggs are included in an oropendola nest in the open woodlands of Central America, what
would be the expected outcome?
a.
The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest to eliminate the competition.
b.
The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest due to a reaction of the mother bird's
immune system.
c.
The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide an additional
food source.
d.
The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection
from large predators.
e.
The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection
from parasites.
2. If cowbird eggs are included in an oropendola nest that is located near bee hives, what would be the
expected outcome?
a.
The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest to eliminate the competition.
b.
The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest due to a reaction of the mother bird's
immune system.
c.
The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide an additional
food source.
d.
The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection
from large predators.
e.
The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection
from parasites.
3. What role do bees play in the interaction between cowbirds and oropendola birds?
a.
keep away large predators
b.
keep away insect pests
c.
pollinate species that only cowbirds prefer
d.
pollinate species that only oropendola birds prefer
e.
have no effect on the relationship between cowbirds and oropendolas
4. Which of the following types of interactions is advantageous for one species, but has no effect on the
other?
a.
commensalism
b.
herbivory
c.
mutualism
d.
parasitism
e.
predation
5. Which of the following types of interactions is advantageous for one species, but has a negative effect
on the other?
a.
predation
b.
herbivory
c.
mutualism
d.
parasitism
e.
predation, herbivory and parasitism
6. Which of the following population interactions is advantageous to both populations?
a.
commensalism
b.
competition
c.
mutualism
d.
parasitism
e.
predation
7. What adaptation(s) allow(s) a rattlesnake to more effectively locate prey?
a.
acute sense of hearing
b.
heat sensors
c.
acute sense of smell
d.
acute sense of vision
e.
acute sense of smell and vision
8. A panda bear who consumes a diet primarily of eucalyptus leaves would be considered a
a.
generalist and a carnivore.
b.
generalist and a herbivore.
c.
specialist and a carnivore.
d.
specialist and a generalist.
e.
specialist and a herbivore.
9. What is/are the factor(s) involved in the optimal foraging theory?
a.
availability of parasites
b.
availability of predators
c.
energy needed to capture mates
d.
energy that foraging provides
e.
energy needed to capture food and energy that the food provides
10. In the experiment involving bluegill sunfish and their choice of diet, when equal numbers of small,
medium, and large Daphnia are present,
a.
the sunfish prefer small Daphnia.
b.
the sunfish prefer medium Daphnia.
c.
the sunfish prefer large Daphnia.
d.
the sunfish show no preference.
e.
sunfish do not consume Daphnia.
11. A milkweed plant discourages consumption by herbivores by
a.
exuding a toxic sap.
b.
developing an appearance that mimics an undesirable plant.
c.
having hairy leaves.
d.
producing an undesirable scent.
e.
having thorns.
12. How do pancake tortoises protect themselves from predators?
a.
Their coloration serves as a disguise.
b.
They emit an undesirable scent.
c.
They have large jaws with teeth.
d.
They puff themselves up and become wedged in between cracks in rocks.
e.
They retreat into their shell.
13. How is the grasshopper mouse able to consume the Eleodes longicollis beetle?
a.
The grasshopper mouse avoids the undesirable secretions by burying the beetle's abdomen.
b.
The grasshopper mouse has cryptic coloration so that the beetle does not notice him.
c.
The grasshopper mouse is immune to the beetle's toxins.
d.
The grasshopper mouse poisons the beetle first.
e.
The grasshopper mouse uses heat detectors to easily locate the beetle.
14. The Monarch butterfly has an undesirable taste and the Viceroy butterfly has a selective advantage
because it looks like the Monarch. This is an example of which process?
a.
aposematic coloration
b.
Batesian mimicry
c.
competitive exclusion principle
d.
cryptic coloration
e.
Müllerian mimicry
15. What conclusion can be drawn from Gause's experiments on interspecific competition in Paramecium?
a.
Both populations of Paramecium expire due to a build-up of waste products.
b.
One population of Paramecium used the other as a food source.
c.
Paramecium populations survive well together because they have no limiting resources.
d.
When two populations of Paramecium use the same limiting resource, they can coexist
long term.
e.
When two populations of Paramecium use the same limiting resource, they cannot coexist
long term.
16. Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Allopatric populations look different and use different resources.
b.
Allopatric populations look different and use the same resources.
c.
Allopatric populations look the same and use different resources.
d.
Allopatric populations look the same and use the same resources.
e.
Sympatric and allopatric populations both look the same and use the same resources.
17. An example of commensalism involves which two organisms?
a.
acacia trees and ant colonies
b.
bacteria and legumes
c.
cattle egrets and cattle
d.
plants and pollinators
e.
tapeworms and pigs
18. What benefit do legumes derive from Rhizobium?
a.
help make carbon dioxide more available
b.
increase root surface area
c.
nitrogen fixation
d.
protection
e.
retain water so it is more available to the plant
19. An example of an obligatory mutualism involves which two organisms?
a.
acacia trees and ant colonies
b.
mycorrhizae and legumes
c.
cattle egrets and cattle
d.
plants and herbivores
e.
tapeworms and pigs
20. Who believed that once a mature community was established that its species composition was at
equilibrium?
a.
Clements
b.
Gleason
c.
Darwin
d.
Whitaker
e.
Connell
21. Most gradient analyses support the individualistic view of communities proposed by ______.
a.
Clements
b.
Gleason
c.
Darwin
d.
Whitaker
e.
Connell
22. What is an ecotone?
a.
a parasite that is external to the body
b.
a parasite that is internal to the body
c.
an example of an individualistic hypothesis
d.
a zone between two communities
e.
the combination of species in an environment that is constant
23. An example from the text contrasts two forests, each with 10 species and a total of 50 trees. The first
forest has 39 of the 50 trees representing the dominant species. The second forest has 2 of each of the
10 different species. What conclusion can be drawn regarding these two forests?
a.
The amount of animal species in each forest would be the same.
b.
The first forest is more diverse than the second.
c.
The first forest must have had some human interference.
d.
The second forest is more diverse than the second.
e.
The second forest must have had some human interference.
24. Which trophic level would be best represented by a rabbit?
a.
decomposer
b.
detritivore
c.
primary consumer
d.
primary producer
e.
secondary consumer
25. Which trophic level would be best represented by a leopard seal?
a.
decomposer
b.
detritivore
c.
primary consumer
d.
primary producer
e.
quaternary consumer
26. What conclusion can be drawn regarding a community in which many species are involved in a food
web?
a.
It is more fragile since organisms have more than a single food source.
b.
It is more fragile since organisms have only a single food source.
c.
It is more stable since organisms have more than a single food source.
d.
It is more stable since organisms have only a single food source.
e.
It is very prone to damage from human interference.
27. Which of the following is NOT a bias that could be encountered when investigating the role of
competition in a community?
a.
More studies are published when competition is a factor.
b.
More studies in K-selected species than in r-selected species.
c.
The importance of competition may be overestimated.
d.
The importance of competition may be underestimated.
e.
The assumption that evolution never occurs.
28. How can predators influence the species richness and structure of communities?
a.
Increasing the carrying capacity of their prey.
b.
Destabilizing competitive interactions among their prey.
c.
Increasing the population sizes of disease organisms.
d.
Increasing the population sizes of their prey.
e.
Reducing the population sizes of their prey.
29. In the study involving periwinkle snails and their algal food sources, which conclusion can be drawn?
a.
Periwinkles eliminated all algae and died out.
b.
Periwinkles eliminated all of the less dominant algae species.
c.
Periwinkles eliminated the dominant algae entirely.
d.
Periwinkles had no effect on the algae populations.
e.
Periwinkles can increase or decrease species richness depending on which algal species it
is consuming.
30. In a study examining the growth of coral in a portion of the Great Barrier Reef, which conclusion
concerning alterations in the coral colonies is the most accurate?
a.
Changes in the colony are due to external factors only.
b.
Changes in the colony are due to internal factors only.
c.
Changes in the colony are due to both external and internal factors.
d.
Changes in the colony are solely due to man's interference.
e.
The study was not able to observe any changes in the coral colony over time.
31. The intermediate disturbance hypothesis posits which of the following?
a.
Species richness is greatest in communities that experience infrequent moderate
disturbances.
b.
Species richness is greatest in communities that experience high temperatures.
c.
Species richness is greatest in communities that experience frequent severe disturbances.
d.
Species richness is greatest in communities that experience frequent moderate
disturbances.
e.
Species richness is greatest in communities that experience intense disturbances.
32. The relationship between species richness and recovery from natural disturbances can best be
summarized as follows:
a.
communities with more diversity do not recover from natural disturbances.
b.
communities with more diversity experience more natural disturbances.
c.
communities with more diversity recover less rapidly from natural disturbances.
d.
communities with more diversity recover more rapidly from natural disturbances.
e.
there is no correlation between community diversity and recovery from natural
disturbances.
33. Succession in “old fields” is often reconstructed using ______.
a.
field experiments
b.
laboratory experiments
c.
historical records
d.
evolutionary records
e.
fossil records
34. Which hypothesis states that new species are prevented from entering a community by the existing
species?
a.
equilibrium theory of island biogeography
b.
facilitation hypothesis
c.
inhibition hypothesis
d.
intermediate hypothesis
e.
tolerance hypothesis
35. Succession results from all of the following EXCEPT ____.
a.
facilitation
b.
growth and maturation rates
c.
inhibition
d.
interspecific differences in dispersal
e.
stasis
36. High species richness in the tropics is probably a result of all of the following EXCEPT ______.
a.
coevolution
b.
year-round availability of resources
c.
a benign climate
d.
high annual rainfall
e.
seasonality
37. Which statement best summarizes the connection between islands and species richness?
a.
The factor influencing species richness on an island is distance from the mainland.
b.
The factor influencing species richness on an island is island size.
c.
The factor influencing species richness on an island is the type of species on the island.
d.
The factors influencing species richness on an island are distance from the mainland and
island size.
e.
The factors influencing species richness on an island are distance from the mainland and
type of species on the island.
38. The species area effect applies to all of the following EXCEPT _____.
a.
islands
b.
lakes
c.
mountaintops
d.
nature preserves
e.
habitats isolated from each other
39. Thomas Bell and his colleagues showed that ______.
a.
island size affects beech tree populations
b.
beech trees are islands for bacteria
c.
number of bacteria species increases with tree hole volume
d.
large beech trees support higher bacteria populations than small beech trees
e.
salt marsh bacteria can live on large beech trees
40. Colonization rates from one habitat patch to another are ____ and extinction rates within habitat
patches are ____ in contiguous habitats than on islands.
a.
lower; lower
b.
lower; higher
c.
higher; higher
d.
higher; lower
e.
even; lower
41. Which statement is true about the effect of stress on a population?
a.
Plants compete more in an ideal environment.
b.
Plants compete more in a stressful environment.
c.
Only abiotic factors influence populations.
d.
Stressful environments brought about by man do not effect populations.
e.
Stressful environments brought about by nature do not effect populations.
42. Community structure is a result of which of the following?
a.
atypical interactions
b.
factorial interactions
c.
positive interactions
d.
negative interactions
e.
positive and negative interactions
Select the Exception
43. Which of the following pairs is NOT a mutualism?
a.
mycorrhizae − plant
b.
Rhizobium − legume
c.
ant − acacia tree
d.
giant moray − bluestreak cleaner wrasse
e.
ant − yucca plant
44. Which of the following is NOT a legume?
a.
beans
b.
clover
c.
peanuts
d.
peas
e.
wheat
45. Which of the following is NOT classified as an ectoparasite?
a.
aphids
b.
bedbugs
c.
leeches
d.
mosquitoes
e.
tapeworm
46. Which of the following is NOT commonly used to describe a community?
a.
species richness
b.
relative abundance
c.
species diversity
d.
dominant species
e.
trophic abundance
1062
47. Which of the following pairs of terms is NOT matched appropriately?
a.
primary consumer − carnivore
b.
primary consumer − herbivore
c.
primary producer − autotroph
d.
primary producer − plant
e.
secondary consumer − carnivore
MATCHING
Match the description to the appropriate term from this chapter.
a.
Aposematic coloration
b.
Commensalism
c.
Ecological niche
d.
Exploitative competition
e.
Interference competition
f.
Mimicry
g.
Mutualism
h.
Parasitism
i.
Resource partitioning
48. sporting a brightly contrasting, dangerous-looking pattern
49. a species closely resembling another species
50. one species harms organisms of another species
51. two or more species use the same limiting resource
52. defined by the resources used by a species and the conditions it requires
53. use of resources in different ways
54. one species derives benefits and the other is unaffected
55. situation where both species benefit
56. one organism feeds off of another organism, causing harm
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57. one population obtains energy from plants; plants are negatively affected
58. one population obtains energy from animals; animals are killed
59. one population obtains energy, while the other is damaged (usually not killed)
60. both populations benefit
61. one population benefits while the other is unaffected
62. can be disadvantageous to both populations
Labeling
Fill in the appropriate titles for each portion of this food web.
63. primary consumers
64. primary producers
65. quaternary consumers
66. secondary consumers
67. tertiary consumers
68. top carnivore
SHORT ANSWER
69. Why does a rattlesnake open its mouth before it even strikes?
70. Since all land-dwelling animals utilize oxygen for respiration, does that make oxygen a limiting
factor?
71. What is the difference between a food chain and a food web?
72. What is the difference between a decomposer and a detritivore?
73. What is the definition of the intermediate disturbance hypothesis?
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OTHER
74. Put the following stages of primary succession in the proper order.
A.
bushes appear
B.
ferns and grasses become established
C.
glaciers retreat
D.
lichens erode rocks
E.
mosses appear
F.
soil is present
G.
trees are established
1.
first event
2.
second event
3.
third event
4.
fourth event
5.
fifth event
6.
sixth event
7.
seventh event
ANS:
75. Put the following stages of secondary succession in the proper order.
A.
asters and broomsedges
B.
crabgrass
C.
hardwood trees
D.
horseweed
E.
pine seedlings
F.
ragweed
G.
shrubs
1.
first event
2.
second event
3.
third event
4.
fourth event
5.
fifth event
6.
sixth event
7.
seventh event
ANS:
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
If the statement is true, answer "T". If the statement is false, answer "F" and make it correct by
changing the underlined word(s) and writing the correct word(s) in the answer blank(s).
76. The evolution of genetically based, reciprocal adaptation in two or more interacting species is
described as coadaptation.
77. Two snakes that have similar bright color patterns are an example of aposematic coloration.
78. In interference competition, two or more populations use the same limiting resource.
79. Realized niches are larger than fundamental niches.
80. Most gradient analyses point toward the individualistic view of communities.
81. A tropical rain forest would most likely include vegetation that includes a canopy.
82. In many ecological communities, one common species can function as a foundation species, defining
the nature of a community by creating locally stable environmental conditions
83. During the 1960’s ecologists emphasized competition as the primary factor structuring communities.
84. A keystone species has a greater effect on community structure than its numbers might suggest.
85. The intermediate disturbance hypothesis says that species richness is least in a community that has
moderate disturbances.
86. During primary succession, debris from rivers and runoff accumulates in a body of water, causing it to
fill in at its margins.
87. In general, species richness follows a longitudinal gradient.
ESSAY
88. When populations of antelope and cheetah coexist, what changes in the populations are likely to occur
due to natural selection?
89. What is the best way to investigate the effects of factors that influence populations?
90. Discuss two hypotheses that attempt to explain the high species richness in the tropics.
