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Campbell’s Biology, 9e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 43 The Immune System
The study of the immune system challenges students with a lot of new vocabulary and cell types. Added
emphasis is given to the concepts associated with chemical identity and molecular recognition
mechanisms. These questions provide students with many opportunities to test their in-depth knowledge
about immunity.
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Innate immunity
A) is activated immediately upon infection.
B) depends on a newly infected animal’s previous exposure to the same pathogen.
C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens.
D) is found only in vertebrate animals.
E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells.
2) Acidity in human urine is an example of
A) cell-mediated immune responses.
B) antibody activation.
C) acquired immunity.
D) adaptive immunity.
E) innate immunity.
3) A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by
A) its plasma cells.
B) its immunoglobulins.
C) its antibodies.
D) its antimicrobial peptides.
E) its B cells.
4) Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity include all of the following except
A) neutrophils.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) natural killer cells.
5) The lymphatic fluid
A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory system for blood.
C) carries both red and white blood cells.
D) functions in adaptive immunity but not in innate immunity.
E) carries a toxic gas that kills cancerous cells.
6) An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is
A) an interferon.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) histamine.
D) mucus.
E) sodium ions.
7) A systemic inflammatory response that is often life-threatening is
A) mild fever.
B) aches and dull pain.
C) septic shock.
D) high blood pressure.
E) increased white blood cell count.
8) The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) the secretion of complement proteins.
C) the release of slightly alkaline secretions.
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces.
E) interferons produced by immune cells.
9) Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be initiated when
A) the microbe survives the acidic environment of the stomach and resists lysosomal degradation in
macrophages.
B) the chemotactic messengers released by the microbe do not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely
destroy the infection.
C) there is a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and fight these microbes.
D) the microbes release chemical messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach sufficiently so that
ingested microbes are not destroyed.
10) The complement system is
A) a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity.
B) a set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
C) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins.
D) a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion.
E) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes.
11) Antihistamine treatment reduces
A) blood vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by macrophages.
D) the secondary immune response.
E) clonal selection by antigens.
12) Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The most
inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such early human art is
A) heat, pain, and redness.
B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue.
C) swelling and pain.
D) antibody-producing cells.
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain.
13) Ancient peoples sought to identify the indicators of inflammation because
A) seeing such signs would be cause for their seeking out a healer in their community.
B) the presence of the signs of inflammation in a patient could be a condemnation of the healer.
C) the ancients probably knew of plant derivatives that could reduce the pain of inflammation.
D) the presence of these signs suggests that healing was taking place; otherwise, the patient would likely
die.
E) the signs of inflammation served as a caution to keep people away from the patient.
14) The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are
A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
B) the phagocytes and the chemokines.
C) the dendritic cells and the interferons.
D) the mast cells and the histamines.
E) the lymphocytes and the interferons.
15) Inflammatory responses typically include
A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection.
B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area.
E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
16) Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin
A) inactivate the erythrocytes.
B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells.
C) stimulate release of interferons.
D) stimulate natural killer cell activity.
E) activate a group of proteins called complement.
17) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes
A) complement.
B) lysozyme.
C) mucus.
D) neutrophils.
E) dendritic cells.
18) In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can activate the protein Toll, which
A) acts as a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides.
B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it.
C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin.
D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific pathogens.
E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens.
19) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent
from vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens, including viral
A) lipopolysaccharides.
B) double-stranded DNA.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) glycoproteins.
E) phospholipids.
20) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an increase in their permeability,
producing
A) redness and heat only.
B) swelling only.
C) pain.
D) redness, heat, and swelling.
E) all of the signs of a major infection.
21) Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response to
A) certain bacterial infections.
B) specific forms of viruses.
C) the presence of natural killer cells.
D) a fever of >103°F in adults.
E) increased production of neutrophils.
22) Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will
likely result in
A) destruction of the bacterium by NK cells.
B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and continued progression of the disease.
C) removal of the bacterium by dendritic cells and its concentration in lymph nodes.
D) the infected individual’s humoral immunity becoming the only route of infection response.
E) lymphocytes migrating from the thymus to attack the bacterium.
23) Adaptive immunity depends on
A) traits common to groups of pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses.
24) Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its
A) Toll-like receptors that bind to lipopolysaccharides.
B) memory cells to produce antibodies.
C) plasma cells to produce antigens.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) humoral immune responses.
25) A key part of the humoral immune response is
A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.
26) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to
A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) natural killer cells.
D) double-stranded RNA.
E) immunoglobulins.
27) An epitope is
A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror image of an antigen.
28) B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the
surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that
A) are active only in lymph nodes.
B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells.
C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma.
D) bind to antigens presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.
E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells.
29) Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA sequences between variable regions and
joining regions is accomplished by
A) polyadenylase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) epitopase.
E) recombinase.
30) Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to production of
A) large numbers of neutrophils.
B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized.
C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors.
D) long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen.
E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen.
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31) Antigens are
A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump.
B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes.
C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains.
D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies.
E) proteins released during an inflammatory response.
32) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely
A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces.
B) lack humoral immunity.
C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.
33) Clonal selection implies that
A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses.
B) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes.
C) only certain cells can produce interferon.
D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
34) Clonal selection is an explanation for how
A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D) HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.
35) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
A) memory cells.
B) macrophages.
C) stem cells.
D) B cells.
E) T cells.
36) The MHC is important in a T cell’s ability to
A) distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D) identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types of cancer.
37) A patient who can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but not against viral
infections, probably has a disorder in his
A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) natural killer cells.
D) T cells.
E) macrophages.
38) The activation of helper T cells is likely
A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines.
C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell.
D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test.
E) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens.
39) An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, with regions symbolized as C or V, H or L,
has a light chain made up of
A) one C region and one V region.
B) three C regions and one V region.
C) one H region and one L region.
D) three H regions and one L region.
E) two C regions and two V regions.
40) The ability of one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules does not require
over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to
A) alternative splicing of exons after transcription.
B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules.
C) DNA rearrangements.
D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells.
E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I.
41) Immunological memory accounts for
A) the human body’s ability to distinguish self from nonself.
B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than
others.
C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines.
D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those
newly diseased.
E) the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens.
42) The function of antibodies is to
A) inject toxins into living pathogens.
B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites.
C) release perforins to disrupt infected cells.
D) act as Toll-like receptors.
E) mark pathogenic cells for destruction.
43) This type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is being fed by actively nursing on its
mother and ends when nursing ends.
A) innate immunity
B) active immunity
C) passive immunity
D) cell-mediated immunity
E) adaptive immunity
44) Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because
A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases.
B) flu can generate anaphylactic shock.
C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the second year.
D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host cells.
E) flu leads to autoimmune disorders.
45) The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.
46) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I
MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells
47) The cells involved in innate immunity, whose absence increases the chances of developing
malignant tumors, are
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.
48) Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells.
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-
antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released
E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell
lysis
49) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is
A) lysozyme production.
B) phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C) antibody production by plasma cells.
D) histamine release by basophils.
E) lysis by natural killer cells.
50) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in
the correct sequence.
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.
A) I → III → II → IV → V
B) III → II → I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III → V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V
51) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a
A) plasma cell.
B) cytotoxic T cell.
C) natural killer cell.
D) CD8 cell.
E) helper T cell.
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52) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
A) respond to T-independent antigens.
B) lyse tumor cells.
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
E) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
53) CD4 and CD8 are
A) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells.
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells.
C) T-independent antigens.
D) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with MHC molecules.
E) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity.
54) T cells of the immune system include
A) CD4, CD8, and plasma cells.
B) cytotoxic and helper cells.
C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells.
D) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E) class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells.
55) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE antibodies.
B) B cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines.
56) Normal immune responses can be described as polyclonal because
A) blood contains many different antibodies and antigens.
B) construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
C) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell.
D) diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.
E) macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in a normal immune response.
57) Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other