Chapter 4
Research Design, Exploratory Research, and Qualitative Data
a. should be relevant to the decision problem.
b. should use economical procedures.
c. are standardized into three formats.
d. a and b.
e. a, b, and c.
a. A research design is the framework for a study that serves as a basis for the
collection and analysis of data in such a way that the study will be relevant to the
problem and will use economical procedures.
b. It is impossible to do research without a research design.
c. A research design ensures that a study will be relevant to the decision problem at
hand.
d. The crucial tenet of research is that the research design should stem from the
problem at hand.
e. They are all true.
a. In exploratory research the major concern is with the discovery of ideas and insights.
b. Exploratory research is often used to clarify concepts and to establish priorities for
further research.
c. Exploratory research investigates hypotheses.
d. Exploratory research is used to develop hypotheses.
e. Exploratory studies do not lend themselves very well to the use of structured
questionnaires.
a. usually takes the form of an experiment.
b. has its major emphasis on the discovery of insights and ideas.
c. is concerned with determining the frequency with which something occurs.
d. is concerned with the determination of a cause-and-effect relationship.
e. has as its main objective the establishment of priorities for future research.
a. the frequency with which something occurs.
b. the discovery of ideas and insights.
c. how two variables vary together.
d. the determination of cause-and-effect relationships.
e. establishing priorities when studying competing explanations of phenomenon.
relationships?
a. an exploratory design
b. an experiment
c. turnover analysis
d. cross-sectional analysis
e. a descriptive design
a. should be strictly limited to the three classifications of exploratory, descriptive and
causal because a given study should serve only one purpose.
b. should stem from the problem.
c. are productive in a given problem setting no matter how the principles are applied.
d. should not be modified to suit specific purposes.
e. are specific in that they instruct the researcher in terms of the single, best way to
proceed in a given study.
a. In exploratory research, the major emphasis is on determining the frequency with
which the phenomenon occur together, e.g. sex of driver with frequency of
accidents.
b. A study aimed at making predictions such as the number of college students who are
likely to go on to graduate school is an exploratory study.
c. It is generally true that in an exploratory study, cases that provide sharp contrasts or
have striking features are most useful.
d. The estimation of the proportion of people who behave in a certain way, e.g.
proportion of college students who smoke, is an example of an exploratory study.
e. They are all true.
decline in sales of the company’s major product, a dark lager. The manager has asked for
your assistance in finding the reasons for the sales decline. The most appropriate way to
begin would be with
a. exploratory research.
b. descriptive research.
c. causal research.
d. an experiment.
e. a consumer study.
a. causal
b. descriptive
c. exploratory
d. exploratory and causal
e. descriptive and causal
a. Marketing research studies employing the exploratory strategy generally have as a
starting point a hypothesis specifying relationships between variables.
b. Exploratory research may generally be considered the step that defines the problem.
c. Exploratory research is characterized by lack of a prespecified formal design.
d. Descriptive studies involve the examination of one or more hypotheses.
e. Descriptive studies are rather demanding in terms of the decisions that must be made
before data collection begins.
a. represents the investigation of a more detailed statement of the problem at each stage
of the problem.
b. always moves in sequence from exploratory to descriptive to causal.
c. always begins with an exploratory study.
d. always starts with an hypothesis.
e. contains only one study of each type.
a. vague topics of interest.
b. specific hypotheses.
c. tentative hypotheses.
d. cause-and-effect hypotheses.
e. b and d.
a. determining the frequency with which something occurs.
b determining cause-and-effect relationships.
c. the relationship between two variables.
d. the discovery of ideas and insights.
e. all of the above are emphasized in exploratory research.
a. is a conjectural statement about the relationship between two variables that are
measurable or potentially measurable.
b. is a broad, vague problem statement.
c. cannot be discovered during research.
d. does not have clear implications for testing the relationship between variables.
e. is only found in the causal type of research.
a. increase the analyst’s familiarity with the problem.
b. clarify concepts.
c. establish priorities in dealing with explanations of problems.
d. a and b.
e. a, b, and c.
a. establish priorities for further research.
b. clarify concepts.
c. describe the characteristics of certain groups.
d. increase the analyst’s familiarity with the problem.
e. formulate a problem for more precise investigation.
a. causal
b. exploratory
c. experimental
d. descriptive
e. b and c
a. through a sample survey.
b. through the use of a panel.
c. through the analysis of selected cases.
d. through an experience survey.
e. through a literature search.
a. tries to get an accurate picture of current practice.
b. should contact all people who possess some knowledge of the general subject.
c. should use a probability sample.
d. should use a selected sample of people who might be familiar with the industry or
problem.
e. should sample selectively from the same homogeneous group.
a. should contact all people who possess some knowledge of the general subject.
b. should emphasize developing tentative explanations.
c. should sample selectively from the same homogenous group.
d. should be conducted in an informal, unstructured manner.
e. b and d.
a. the respondents are able to choose the factors to be discussed.
b. the emphasis is on developing tentative explanations.
c. the emphasis is not on demonstrating that an explanation is the primary explanation.
d. the interviews are unstructured and informal.
e. all of the above are true.
a. exploratory studies.
b. descriptive studies.
c. laboratory experimentation.
d. field experimentation.
e. computer simulation.
a. requires interviewing only those people with a great amount of experience or
knowledge.
b. is designed to obtain an accurate picture of current practices.
c. requires the researcher to contact all possible sources of information.
d. should be conducted in a formal, structure manner.
e. should emphasize developing tentative explanations.
a. consists of an interviewer and a subject discussing a single topic of interest to the
interviewer.
b. is not useful for testing hypotheses.
c. typically consists of four to six members.
d. requires selecting members so that they form relatively heterogeneous groups in
order to get perspectives from those with different socioeconomic backgrounds.
e. involves having subjects fill out a survey on one topic.
a. generating hypotheses.
b. generating information helpful in structuring questionnaires.
c. gathering background information on a product category.
d. a and c.
e. a, b, and c.
a. Individuals who have previously participated in a focus group are particularly
valuable to researchers because they will have a more relaxed attitude than first-time
members.
b. Focus group moderators typically attempt to cover all the objectives of the research
in a single meeting while ensuring that group interaction is promoted.
c. Product and service ideas can drop “out of the blue” in focus group sessions.
d. Ideas from one focus group member can stimulate responses and ideas from other
group members.
e. They are all false.
a. generating hypotheses.
b. gaining new insights into product usage.
c. testing cause-effect relationships.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
a. The sessions are easy to moderate.
b. It is difficult to support a preconceived position because focus group members have
different attitudes on most subjects.
c. The results of sessions are representative of the general population.
d. Coding, tabulation, and analysis of responses is difficult in comparison to a written
survey.
e. They are all true.
a. moderators typically cannot control larger groups.
b. smaller groups are often dominated by one or two members.
c. in larger groups, individuals have to wait to speak.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
a. attempt to develop relatively homogeneous groups.
b. attempt to develop relatively heterogeneous groups.
c. heavily recruit previous focus group members.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
a. friendly personality.
b. being an expert on the topic.
c. excellent memory.
d. good writer.
e. a facilitator.
a. ideas can drop “out of the blue.”
b. snowballing of ideas.
c. more spontaneous responses than in one-on-one interviews.
d. easy interpretation of responses.
e. a, b, and c.
a. difficult to moderate the session.
b. responses are not representative of general population.
c. ideas never thought of before may be discovered during the session.
d. a and b.
e. a and c.
a. a literature search
b. focus group
c. analysis of selected cases
d. descriptive research
e. causal research
highest sales is an example of research.
a. causal
b. exploratory
c. experimental
d. descriptive
e. none of the above
been declining in absolute level of sales for the last four consecutive months. You ask the
marketing research department to do a study to determine why sales have declined. The
most appropriate research strategy would be
a. an experimental study.
b. a field experiment followed by an exploratory study.
c. an experimental study followed by a descriptive study.
d. an exploratory study.
e. a descriptive study involving a field survey of actual and potential customers.
a. usually involve probability sampling plans.
b. usually use structured questionnaires.
c. use a formal design.
d. are characterized by flexibility.
e. require a clear, precise statement of the research problem.
a. The interviewer can delve deep into a topic.
b. They allow more candid discussion on the part of the interviewee.
c. They are essential for certain situations where competitors would otherwise be
placed in the same room.
d. They eliminate the negatives that group influences have in a focus group.
e. All the above are advantages of individual depth interviews.
a. They are typically much more expensive than groups.
b. They generally do not get the same degree of client involvement as focus groups.
c. They are physically exhausting for the moderator, so it is difficult to cover as much
ground in one day as it is with groups.
d. a and b.
e. a, b, and c.
a. The investigator has a receptive attitude to new explanations of a phenomena.
b. The investigator needs to possess good integrative abilities.
c. The investigator attempts to explain both the unique and common features of each
case.
d. Cases reflecting extremes of behavior are particularly productive.
e. All of the above are features of the analysis of selected cases.
cases that
a. reflect abrupt changes.
b. reflect extremes of behavior.
c. reflect the order in which events occurred over time.
d. reflect striking features.
e. all of the above are useful types of cases.
questions?
a. take longer to complete
b. will require more interviewers
c. will allow more respondents to be interviewed
d. b and c
e. all of the above are true
a. When using structured-undisguised questionnaires, the researcher presents the
subjects with an initial stimulus which necessarily varies across subjects.
b. The depth interview is an example of the use of an unstructured-disguised
questionnaire.
c. An unstructured-disguised communication method might be useful for getting at
respondents’ feelings about sensitive issues.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
a. The services of a skilled psychologist make the task of analyzing the responses
from a depth interview very easy.
b. The open-ended question is particularly useful in descriptive research.
c. A projective technique involves the use of a stimulus that an individual is asked to
describe, expand upon, or build a structure around.
d. The researcher can explore all areas of inquiry by direct questioning.
e. They are all false.
a. the interviewer probes for elaboration.
b. the interviewer follows a rough outline.
c. question sequence varies from interview to interview.
d. all of the above.
e. a and b.
is FALSE?
a. Both are structured in regard to presenting the stimuli and are unstructured in
regard to the response.
b. The degree of structure associated with these methods tends to substantially
reduce the coding problems of unstructured methods.
c. Sentence-completion in comparison to word-association has the advantage in that
the respondent can be provided with a more directed stimulus.
d. Both are examples of unstructured-undisguised questioning.
e. Both are examples of projective techniques.
a. causes severe problems in analysis.
b. requires highly skilled interviewers.
c. lacks structure.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
a. structured-undisguised
b. unstructured-undisguised
c. unstructured-disguised
d. structured-disguised
e. none of the above
interpret the individual’s
a. personality.
b. intentions.
c. behavior.
d. awareness.
e. attitudes.
communication.
a. structured-undisguised
b. unstructured-undisguised
c. unstructured-disguised
d. structured-disguised
e. none of the above
a. structured-undisguised
b. unstructured-disguised
c. unstructured-undisguised
d. structured-disguised
e. none of the above
a. sentence completion tasks
b. depth interviews
c. word association tasks
d. story telling
e. Thematic Apperception Tests
a. in the interpretations of the replies.
b. when trying to secure the respondent’s cooperation.
c. in the lack of experience of the respondents with these techniques.
d. in the distorted frame of reference of the interviewers.
e. There are no problems with projective methods.
a. a series of copyrighted pictures.
b. an example of verbal association techniques.
c. an example of a story-telling technique.
d. a and c above.
e. a and b above.
taken to indicate
a. that the word is unfamiliar.
b. that the respondent’s involvement with the word blocks the response.
c. that the respondent is emotionally involved in the word so that he searches for an
acceptable response.
d. that the theory of impaired cognitive emotions is operating.
e. There is no meaning attached to such hesitation.
a. that the subject’s organization of unstructured stimuli is indicative of his
perceptions and reactions.
b. that the subject’s organization of structured stimuli is indicative of his perceptions
and reactions.
c. that the subject’s perceptions of social stimuli influence his reactions.
d. that the subject’s organization of stimuli depends on the nature of the stimuli.
e. all of the above.
a. increases potential for frame of reference bias.
b. increases reliability of observations.
c. typically results in a loss of validity.
d. a and b.
e. all of the above are true.
a. behavior.
b. intentions.
c. results of behavior.
d. consumers, without their knowing it.
e. none of the above.
a. speeds data collection
b. produces lower-cost research
c. allows more objective measurements
d. a and c
e. a, b, and c
a. less restricted behavior.
b. fewer tabulation and analysis problems.
c. better control of extraneous influences.
d. greater external validity.
e. a laboratory setting possesses no advantages over a natural setting.
a. the number of approaches possible.
b. the degree of structure to be used.
c. the degree of participation in the observer.
d. the degree of disguise that is needed.
e. the observer.
a. In behavioral observation the observer can be an advantage and a disadvantage.
b. Undisguised observation can be made directly or indirectly, but disguised
observation can only be made directly.
c. The pantry audit is an example of an indirect method of observation.
d. An advantage of an observation in an artificial situation over one in a natural
situation is that it can be contrived at convenient times and places and can be set
up so as to yield observations of the type desired.
e. Observation is more limited than communication in the types of data it can secure.
emotional arousal is measured by
a. a galvanometer.
b. a tachistoscope.
c. opthalomograph.
d. audiometer.
e. none of the above.
a. galvanometer
b. eye camera
c. tachistoscope
d. videocart
e. none of the above
responses by measuring how loud the answer is?
a. galvanometer
b. tachistoscope
c. voice pitch analysis
d. response latency
e. none of the above
a. The psychogalvanometer is used to measure pupil dilation whereas the eye
camera is used to record movements of the eye.
b. Response latency is the amount of time a respondent deliberates before answering
a question.
c. Response latency when used to measure brand preference rests on the premise
that the degree of latency is directly proportional to the strength of the preference.
d. Voice pitch analysis attempts to assess the loudness with which people answer
specific questions.
e. They are all false.
a. The tachistoscope provides the researcher timing control over a visual stimulus.
b. The galvanometer is used to assess the emotional arousal induced by exposure to
specific advertising copy.
c. Response latency measures the amount of time a respondent deliberates before
answering a question.
d. Voice pitch analysis examines changes in the relative vibration frequency of the
human voice that accompanies emotional arousal.
e. Vertical reliability is an increasingly popular way for assessing customer reactions
in a natural environment.
specify
a. who is to be observed.
b. what aspects of the behavior should be reported.
c. when the observation is to be made.
d. where the observation is to be made.
e. all of the above.
a) watch consumers use products in their homes
b) talk to consumers about how they use products in their homes
c) make some field observations without talking to consumers
d) all of the above are true
e) only a and b are true
a) it is best followed up with descriptive and/or causal research
b) it may be comprised of focus groups or interviews
c) it may be comprised of open-ended questions on surveys
d) it can be used to shape the design of surveys
e) it is often sufficient for a manager’s marketplace decisions