Campbell Biology: Concepts and Connections, 8e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 34 The Biosphere: An Introduction to Earth’s Diverse Environments
34.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The primary source of energy for hydrothermal vent communities is
A) the heat of the water emerging from the vents.
B) oxidation of petroleum compounds in the vent water.
C) oxidation of hydrogen sulfide in the vent water.
D) reduction of carbon dioxide in the vent water.
2) All of Earth that is inhabited by life is called the
A) atmosphere.
B) ecosystem.
C) biosphere.
D) biome.
3) While on a walk through a forest, you notice birds in trees, earthworms in the soil, and fungi
on plant litter on the forest floor. Based on your observations, you conclude that each of these
organisms occupies a different
A) habitat.
B) ecosystem.
C) biosphere.
D) biome.
4) The level of ecologic organization that incorporates abiotic factors is the
A) community.
B) ecosystem.
C) population.
D) species.
5) Which of the following could be a topic for a community-level study of a hydrothermal vent
ecosystem?
A) the relationships between crabs at the vent and other areas of the ocean
B) the evolution of a certain species of bacteria in response to the changing composition of the
water emitted by the hydrothermal vents
C) the composition of the water emitted by hydrothermal vents
D) the interactions between Yeti crabs and other species near hydrothermal vents
6) Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring deals with the
A) destruction of polar habitats caused by global warming.
B) environmental effects of pesticides.
C) effects of lynx predation on snow hare populations.
D) fate of tropical rain forests.
7) The immediate results of the widespread use of pesticides and fertilizers included ________,
but long-term results included ________.
A) dramatic increases in crop yields; the evolution of pest resistance
B) the increased spread of malaria; delayed resistance to pesticides
C) terrible declines in agricultural productivity; worldwide distribution of DDT
D) global declines in undesirable pests, such as mice, rats, crows, and sharks; increases in these
pests
8) In many dense forests, plants living near the ground level engage in intense competition for
A) oxygen.
B) water.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) sunlight.
9) Which of the following environmental factors usually has the greatest direct effect on an
organism’s rate of water loss by evaporation?
A) soil type
B) wind
C) fires, hurricanes, and tornadoes
D) barometric pressure
10) What is the primary reason that a hot spring will kill a fish placed in it but encourage the
growth of certain bacteria?
A) The high temperatures destroy most of the fish’s enzymes, but the specialized bacteria have
enzymes adapted to these temperatures.
B) Fish cannot feed directly on bacteria, but the bacteria can feed on dead fish.
C) At hot spring temperatures, the metabolic activity of the fish’s cells is so rapid that it runs out
of food reserves and dies; the bacteria feed on the dead fish.
D) Bacterial growth at high temperatures is so rapid that it deoxygenates the water and kills the
fish.
11) The pronghorn antelope of the United States and the saiga antelope of the central Asian
steppes live in similar habitats and have similar adaptations. Which of the following features
would you be surprised to find in a saiga antelope?
A) camouflaging coloration
B) teeth adapted to grinding tough forage
C) a warmly insulating winter coat
D) a digestive tract without cellulose-digesting bacteria
12) The reason the pronghorn antelope is not found outside North America is most likely that
A) it has never dispersed beyond this region.
B) its nutritional requirements cannot be met outside this region.
C) there are too many pronghorn predators outside North America.
D) its temperature requirements are stringent and not met outside North America.
13) The adaptations of pronghorns
A) to open country could be a disadvantage in a densely forested environment.
B) include a reflective coat, an ability to find small pools of water, and chemical defenses against
most predators.
C) to the open plains and shrub deserts of North America have helped them spread to nearly
every continent.
D) demonstrate that meeting the demands of local environmental conditions helps organisms
extend their ranges to other types of environments.
14) In terms of global air circulation, the tropics are a region where air
A) descends and warms, dropping rain.
B) rises and warms, creating an arid belt.
C) rises and cools, creating an arid belt.
D) rises and cools, dropping rain.
15) The greatest annual input and least seasonal variation in solar radiation occurs in the
A) Southern Hemisphere.
B) temperate zones.
C) tropics.
D) polar regions.
16) If you travel through Ecuador from west to east, you will pass through tundra, taiga,
temperate forest, and tropical forest. Which of the following climatic factors remains constant on
such a trip?
A) maximum temperature
B) average rainfall
C) soil type
D) day length
17) Most of the world’s deserts are located at latitudes where
A) hot, dry air moving toward the equator rises.
B) hot, dry air moving toward the poles rises.
C) cold, dry air moving toward the poles descends.
D) cold, dry air moving toward the equator descends.
18) When people speak of the “rain shadow” of the Himalayan mountains, where the Gobi desert
is, they are referring to the
A) shadow cast by the mist and clouds that hover above the crest of the range.
B) forested condition of the eastern flank of the range compared to the western flank.
C) scarcity of rain on the eastern flank and adjacent lowlands compared to the western flank.
D) dark-colored chaparral vegetation that grows on the eastern flank.
19) A sperm whale in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean is in which oceanic zone?
A) intertidal
B) benthic
C) pelagic
D) estuarine
6
20) Except near hydrothermal vents, the communities of the oceanic aphotic zone get their
energy mainly from
A) photosynthesis by local phytoplankton.
B) photosynthesis by local zooplankton.
C) oxidation of sulfur by sulfur bacteria.
D) organic matter sinking from the photic zone.
21) Which ocean zone describes the interface between ocean and land?
A) intertidal
B) pelagic
C) abyssal
D) upwelling
22) Fresh water and seawater mix in a(n)
A) estuary.
B) benthic zone.
C) deep water zone.
D) continental shelf zone.
23) Under the conditions known as El Niño, the inorganic nutrient content of the seawater off the
coast of Peru declines to very low levels. What effect will this likely have on marine life in the
area?
A) The lower the levels of minerals, the less polluted the water; hence, most populations will
increase.
B) It will result in toxic red tides, which will reduce the populations of many species.
C) It will reduce the abundance of phytoplankton and, consequently, the abundance of other
organisms.
D) It will increase the productivity of phytoplankton and, therefore, the productivity of other
organisms by allowing sunlight to penetrate deeper into the ocean.
24) Usually, a river ________ at its source compared to farther downstream.
A) has less phytoplankton
B) is warmer
C) is wider
D) flows more slowly
25) Why is the runoff from fertilized agricultural fields, even if free of pesticides, often harmful
to the ecosystems of temperate lakes?
A) Fertilizer compounds are toxic to fish.
B) The runoff causes heavy growth of algae, which eventually die and decompose, causing
oxygen depletion.
C) Runoff water pools at the lake’s bottom, where the fertilizer compounds react with materials
in the sediment to form toxic substances.
D) The runoff is acid, and acidification kills key lake organisms.
26) Species in widely separated but similar biomes often appear to display similar characteristics
because of
A) convergent evolution.
B) coevolution.
C) mutations.
D) evolutionary drift.
27) Which of the following statements about biomes, the major terrestrial ecosystems covering
the Earth, is true?
A) Each of the 10 major biomes is restricted to just one or two continents.
B) The major factors affecting the distribution of biomes are wind and sunlight.
C) Most natural biomes are unaffected by human activity.
D) Fire is very important in some biomes.
28) Which of the following statements about tropical forests is true?
A) Tropical forests occur in equatorial regions with very long (16- to 20-hour) days.
B) The forest structure consists of distinct layers that provide many different habitats.
C) Once stripped, tropical rain forests regrow quickly, although with slightly less diversity.
D) The soils of tropical rain forests are typically rich in nutrients.
29) The kind of vegetation in a tropical rain forest is generally determined by the amount of
A) rainfall.
B) organic material in the soil.
C) minerals in the soil.
D) light.
30) The major cause of tropical deforestation is
A) hurricane destruction of large regions.
B) people clearing forests to open up land for agriculture.
C) governments clearing forests to build cities.
D) natural succession as global warming occurs.
31) A photograph of a Victorian trophy room shows the heads of 15 species of hoofed mammals,
all shot within a day’s walk of a single hunting camp in Africa. This camp was probably located
in
A) tropical rain forest.
B) chaparral.
C) savanna.
D) desert.
32) The dominant herbivores in savannas are
A) gophers.
B) insects.
C) antelope.
D) giraffes.
33) Which of the following correctly pairs a biome and its characteristics?
A) temperate broadleaf forest—mild winters; scarce rainfall; predominantly dicot vegetation
B) chaparral—mild, rainy winters; long, hot, but wet summers
C) savanna—long, cold winters; vegetation dominated by conifers
D) tundra—very cold winters; only the upper layer of the soil thaws during summer
34) Which of the following statements about deserts and the organisms that live there is true?
A) Air temperatures in cold deserts, such as those west of the Rocky Mountains, may never fall
below 30°C.
B) Growth and reproduction occur year-round in deserts.
C) Desert plants typically produce very few seeds.
D) Many desert animals are nocturnal.
35) You are reading the journal of an amateur naturalist who visited the Sonoran Desert in the
last century. Which of his descriptions of desert plants would you question?
A) a plant whose seeds will not germinate unless soaked
B) a perennial that flowers only after years of vegetative growth and produces a large number of
seeds
C) a late winter hillside covered with wildflowers
D) a common annual that produces one large seed per plant
36) Chaparral vegetation occurs around much of the central valley of central and southern
California. This biome is very similar to that found
A) in the Australian interior.
B) in the Mediterranean region.
C) on the southeast coast of the United States.
D) in central Asia.
37) Which of the following is characteristic of the chaparral biome?
A) dense, broadleaf shrubs
B) low amounts of rainfall at unpredictable periods throughout the year
C) many plants with seeds that need fire to germinate
D) animal species limited to lizards and snakes
38) Most of the best agricultural soils in the United States are found in areas that were formerly
A) temperate grasslands.
B) taiga forest.
C) tropical rain forest.
D) tundra.
39) Factors that help to perpetuate temperate grasslands, such as the American prairies, and
prevent them from becoming woodlands include
A) poor soil.
B) periodic drought and fires.
C) large numbers of cacti.
D) mild winters with very little rain.
40) In which of the following biomes would you expect to find the highest abundance of large,
grazing mammals?
A) chaparral
B) temperate grassland
C) desert
D) temperate forest
41) Which of the following statements about temperate broadleaf forests is true?
A) Temperate broadleaf forests have a narrow range of temperatures over the course of a year.
B) Oak, hickory, birch, beech, and maple are common trees in temperate broadleaf forests.
C) Temperate broadleaf forests have very poor soil.
D) Temperate broadleaf forests are less open than tropical rain forests.
42) Which of the following biomes is dominated by coniferous trees adapted to surviving long,
harsh winters and short, wet summers?
A) coniferous forests
B) tundra
C) temperate broadleaf forest
D) savanna
43) Which of the following statements about coniferous forests is true?
A) Coniferous forests are the smallest terrestrial biome.
B) Coniferous forests are characterized by long but mild winters and short, dry summers that are
sometimes warm.
C) Coniferous forests usually have nutrient-rich soils.
D) Coniferous forests may experience considerable precipitation, usually in the form of snow.
44) Which of the following tundra features can be found at the top of the Andes Mountains in
Ecuador?
A) fierce winds and frigid nights
B) permafrost
C) large trees with shallow roots
D) a brief, bright growing season and a long, dark winter
45) Which of the following factors is fundamentally responsible for the character of arctic tundra
soils?
A) secretion of acid by lichens and plant roots
B) permafrost
C) summer aridity
D) abundant winter snow
46) Living things that live in the polar ice biome include
A) mosses, lichens, seals, and polar bears.
B) penguins, seals, moose, and springtails.
C) mosses, ferns, gulls, and penguins.
D) lichens, jaguars, gulls, and polar bears.
47) Which of the following has the greatest impact on the global water cycle?
A) removing animals from their biome
B) human destruction of forests
C) connecting aquatic and terrestrial biomes
D) human overuse of water resources for large cities
48) Pronghorn antelopes are well adapted for dry conditions with extremes of temperature,
especially cold. As global climate change causes the area where the pronghorn live to change,
not only in temperature but also in what plants grow there and what predators and prey live there,
what is likely to happen to the pronghorn?
A) The animals will learn to eat whatever plants exist in their area and escape from any new
predators that arrive.
B) If the pronghorn population includes genetic variation that allows survival and reproduction
in the new conditions, they will adapt.
C) If climate change is not too rapid, the pronghorn can produce new traits needed to survive and
reproduce in the changed conditions.
D) Because pronghorns will need to be cooler, their fur will become thinner.
49) Which of these is an example of natural selection acting on genetic variation resulting in
evolutionary adaptation?
A) As global warming has continued, many species that were found near the tropics have
migrated either northward or southward toward the poles.
B) During years of drought, tree rings are narrower.
C) As the African environment became drier and the grasslands more prevalent, arched feet and
non-opposable toes, both more effective for walking upright, became more common in hominins.
D) Insect diversity in temperate broadleaf forests varies from year to year based on the amount of
precipitation.
34.2 Art Questions
1) In which of the zones shown in this depiction of an aquatic biome does photosynthesis occur?
A) zone A
B) zone B
C) zone C
D) zone D
2) In what ways are zones A and C similar to other biomes?
A) In abiotic factors, A is similar to rivers and C is most like lakes.
B) In species diversity, A is most like tropical rain forests and C is like temperate broadleaf
forests.
C) In sunlight, A is most like the tundra and C is like coniferous forests.
D) In organism sizes, A is most like savannas and C is most like deserts.
3) Which arrow in this image of the global water cycle includes transpiration?
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) arrow D
4) Forest destruction would have the greatest impact on which arrow?
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) arrow D
5) If ocean waters in one area are radioactively contaminated, which processes would cause that
radioactivity to show up in plant crops at some distance from the contamination?
A) processes A and B
B) processes B and C
C) processes C and D
D) processes D and A
6) If process D is decreased, what impact will that likely have on the surrounding area?
A) Increased precipitation will increase erosion.
B) Lack of vegetation will increase the probability of drought.
C) Areas covered by ocean will increase.
D) More moisture will move over land from the ocean.
34.3 Scenario Questions
After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.
The largest estuary in the United States is the Chesapeake Bay, which extends through six states,
including Maryland, Virginia, and Pennsylvania. The bay is one of the most productive natural
areas in the world. It is home to thousands of plants and animals, including many commercially
important species. The water of the bay is relatively shallow. Many areas are no more than 10
feet deep, with an average depth of 30 feet. Light penetrates the shallow water and supports the
submerged plants that provide food and shelter for the many species living in the bay ecosystem.
However, like many estuaries, the bay receives large amounts of fertilizer runoff from farms,
lawns, and wastewater treatment facilities.
1) Which of the following is the most probable sequence of events when fertilizer runoff reaches
the bay?
A) submerged vegetation increases, food for fish and shellfish increases, fish and shellfish
populations increase
B) phytoplankton population increases, food for fish and shellfish increases, fish and shellfish
populations increase
C) phytoplankton population increases, it blocks sunlight to submerged vegetation, submerged
vegetation dies, fish and shellfish populations decrease
D) submerged vegetation decreases, fish and shellfish feed on decaying plants, phytoplankton
feed on fish and shellfish, commercial fisheries decline
2) Fertilizer runoff contains ________, which are the most important limiting factors for
phytoplankton growth.
A) carbon and hydrogen
B) oxygen and carbon dioxide
C) nitrogen and phosphorus
D) sulfur and magnesium
3) The area around the bay where grasses and snails are found in abundance is a
A) wetland.
B) temperate forest.
C) tropical forest.
D) temperate grassland.
After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.
California condors, large, predatory birds that were previously on the edge of extinction, have
benefited from a program that raises birds in captivity and then releases them into the wild. The
reintroduction program, however, is having variable success.
4) Which of the following provides the best evidence to help develop a hypothesis about what is
causing the difficulties faced by a coastal condor population?
A) Sea lions, food for condors along the coast, live near an old dumping ground for a chemical
manufacturing plant and have a significant amount of DDT in their blubber.
B) Air currents along the coast are stronger, allowing coastal condors to cover more area in their
search for prey.
C) California bans ammunition containing lead (Pb) to prevent lead ingestion by condors feeding
on carcasses of animals shot by hunters but not retrieved.
D) Hatching success in birds farther from the coast was greater than that in birds along the coast.
5) Which of the following would have been a surprise to wildlife biologists who, after
successfully breeding and raising condors, were reintroducing the condors to the wild following
a precipitous decline in their number in the 1970s? (In 1982 there were only 19 condors in the
wild.)
A) Twelve of 19 nests had no hatchlings, and nests of the coastal population had shell fragments
34% thinner than those of condor populations more inland.
B) Only some of the released condors fed on marine mammals; others fed on carcasses of
animals as different as wolves and cows.
C) Sea otter and sea lion populations declined in areas where the condors were released.
D) Reintroduced condors laid the same number of eggs as condor pairs in captivity.
6) Scientists suspected that the condors eating marine mammals were ingesting DDT, causing the
kind of shell fragility found in the middle part of the last century before DDT was banned.
Which of the following actions would provide the best evidence that poor egg quality rather than
predation or some other factor was the cause of failed condor reproduction?
A) Swap eggs from nests of reintroduced condors with eggs from successfully reproducing
condors in captivity.
B) Compare the number of eggs in nests of birds in captivity with the number of eggs in the nests
of birds in the wild.
C) Count the number of mating pairs in each area in the wild.
D) Monitor food eaten by condors in each of the areas where condors have been reintroduced.
7) If it were determined that condor reproduction along the coast is being harmed by DDT in the
condors’ foods, which of the following actions would be most useful to improve the situation?
A) Provide carcasses of animals without DDT that the condors can eat.
B) Move all condors away from the area where DDT exists.
C) Monitor DDT use in the area where reproduction is failing.
D) Remove all eggs from condor nests in the coastal population so that there will be no
hatchlings with DDT.
8) Which of the following could best explain how condor reproduction along the coast is being
harmed by DDT in the condors’ foods now, even though DDT was banned in 1972?
A) Condors may be feeding on animals that contain DDT.
B) Eggshells are made of a material that accumulates tiny amounts of DDT from the
environment.
C) A chemical company dumped a large amount of DDT in the ocean near Southern California.
D) Condors are very large and long-lived animals.