Campbell Biology: Concepts and Connections, 8e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 27 Reproduction and Embryonic Development
27.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Coral reefs are made up of genetically identical coral polyps. New polyps develop as offshoots
from the parental polyp. What type of reproduction do coral polyps use?
A) budding
B) fission
C) fragmentation
D) sexual reproduction
2) Which of the following is not a potential advantage of asexual reproduction?
A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.
B) It saves the time and energy required to produce gametes.
C) It produces genetically diverse populations.
D) It allows animals that are genetically well suited to a particular environment to quickly
expand their populations.
3) Fission is an asexual process
A) that allows regeneration of lost body parts.
B) that occurs in individuals that live in isolated areas.
C) in which a parent separates into two individuals of approximately equal size.
D) in which a parent fragments into several pieces.
4) Which of the following statements regarding sexual reproduction is true?
A) Sexual reproduction creates an individual that is a genetic copy of one parent.
B) Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction.
C) Sexual reproduction allows animals to expand their populations faster than asexual
reproduction.
D) Populations of organisms that reproduce through sexual reproduction generally have more
difficulty adapting to changing environments.
5) Hermaphrodites are animals that
A) possess both male and female reproductive systems.
B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other.
C) develop from unfertilized eggs.
D) must fertilize themselves.
6) Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in
A) terrestrial animals.
B) populations with many more males than females.
C) animals that are widely dispersed.
D) aquatic animals.
7) Which of the following statements about the reproductive system of human females is true?
A) In human females, eggs develop within the uterus.
B) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which helps maintain the uterine lining during
pregnancy.
C) After nine months of development, an embryo is called a fetus.
D) The cervix is an important structure of sexual arousal.
8) The human egg is swept through the oviduct toward the uterus by
A) the beating of the egg’s cilia.
B) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct.
C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus.
D) the beating of cilia in the oviduct.
9) Fertilization in the female reproductive tract typically occurs in the
A) ovary.
B) upper part of the oviduct.
C) lower part of the oviduct.
D) uterus.
10) The embryo implants in the ________.
A) oviduct
B) labia minora
C) ovary
D) endometrium
11) An advantage of human testes being positioned in an external sac rather than in the
abdominal cavity is that
A) the distance that that semen must travel during ejaculation is shortened.
B) the distance that sperm must swim during insemination is shortened.
C) the testes can be kept cooler than the body’s interior.
D) the testes can enlarge during sexual maturation.
12) The body cells of a turkey have 80 chromosomes each. How many chromosomes would be
found in a male turkey’s sperm cells?
A) 160
B) 80
C) 40
D) 20
13) After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the
A) vas deferens.
B) epididymis.
C) prostate.
D) seminal vesicle.
14) Which of the following produces a thick fluid containing fructose, which is used for energy
by sperm?
A) prostate gland
B) bulbourethral gland
C) seminal vesicles
D) epididymis
15) Which of the following statements regarding spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?
A) Meiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte.
B) Meiosis in oogenesis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte.
C) Oogenesis begins at puberty.
D) Spermatogenesis begins at birth.
16) Which of the following statements comparing spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?
A) During oogenesis, four cells are produced with each sharing equally the cytoplasm from the
parent cell.
B) Men, but not women, can produce gametes throughout their adult lives.
C) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis rely upon mitosis to produce gametes.
D) Spermatogenesis, but not oogenesis, is an example of gametogenesis.
17) Menstruation
A) is triggered by an LH surge.
B) is triggered by HCG.
C) is triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.
D) coincides with the beginning of the pre-ovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle.
18) Which of the following hormones stimulates the growth of an ovarian follicle?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) estrogen
D) progesterone
19) A decrease in ________ is followed by the gradual degradation of the corpus luteum.
A) LH
B) FSH
C) estrogen
D) progesterone
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20) Which of the following agents can cause an infection that can ultimately develop into pelvic
inflammatory disease in women?
A) herpes simplex virus type 2
B) papilloma virus
C) Candida albicans
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
21) Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus that can also cause cancer?
A) genital warts
B) syphilis
C) gonorrhea
D) candidiasis
22) Sterilization, in which sperm are surgically prevented from reaching the egg, is accomplished
by
A) the rhythm method.
B) tubal ligation or vasectomy.
C) spermicide.
D) mifepristone.
23) Which of the following statements regarding birth control is true?
A) The most widely used birth control pills contain a combination of FSH and LH.
B) Natural family planning is generally reliable.
C) Morning-after pills taken within three days of unprotected intercourse prevent fertilization or
implantation about 75% of the time.
D) Birth control pills work primarily by preventing fertilization and implantation.
24) The function of a sperm cell’s acrosome is to
A) carry the sperm’s nucleus.
B) fuse with the jelly coat of the egg cell.
C) carry enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the egg.
D) carry the fuel that powers the sperm.
25) Which of the following generates the ATP that is required for movement of the sperm’s tail?
A) a mitochondrion in the neck and middle piece
B) mitochondria in the sperm tail
C) the sperm plasma membrane
D) the acrosome
26) Which of the following serves as an impenetrable barrier that prevents more than one sperm
from fertilizing an egg?
A) the acrosome
B) the jelly coat of the egg
C) the sperm’s plasma membrane
D) the vitelline layer
27) Which of the following events occurs first during embryonic development?
A) gastrulation
B) neurulation
C) cleavage
D) organ formation
28) Which of the following results from cleavage?
A) formation of the nervous system
B) formation of the notochord
C) formation of more cells
D) segmentation
29) Which of the following processes is most similar to the process of cleavage?
A) slicing up a pie into eight pieces
B) stringing beads onto a string
C) inflating a balloon
D) melting a stick of butter in a hot pan
30) Two important contributions that cleavage makes to development are to
A) establish the basic tissues of the body and define the future nervous system.
B) create a multicellular embryo and partition the embryo into developmental regions.
C) create a multicellular embryo and establish the basic tissues of the body.
D) establish the basic body plan and determine the location of the mouth and anus.
31) At the end of gastrulation, the ectoderm makes up the
A) lining of the embryonic digestive tract.
B) embryonic nervous system.
C) outer layer of the gastrula.
D) inner layer of the gastrula.
32) What occurs during gastrulation?
A) A solid embryo is changed into a hollow morula.
B) A solid blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has four tissue layers.
C) A hollow blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers.
D) A neural tube is created by invagination of the ectoderm.
33) Which of the following structures develops from mesodermal tissue?
A) muscles
B) lining of the digestive tract
C) skin
D) nervous system
34) The brain and spinal cord are formed from
A) the notochord, which is formed from mesoderm.
B) the notochord, which is formed from endoderm.
C) the neural tube, which is formed from mesoderm.
D) the neural tube, which is formed from ectoderm.
35) Which of the following options correctly lists the sequence in which most animals develop?
A) zygote, cleavage, blastula, gastrula, organ formation
B) cleavage, zygote, gastrula, blastula, organ formation
C) zygote, cleavage, gastrula, blastula, organ formation
D) zygote, cleavage, organ formation, blastula, gastrula
36) When a chemical signal from a group of embryonic cells causes a different, nearby group of
cells to embark on a particular developmental course (say, differentiating into a leg), the
interaction between the two groups of cells is called
A) induction.
B) coordinated differentiation.
C) implantation.
D) potentiation.
37) Cells migrate from one place to another during gastrulation using
A) cilia.
B) cellular protrusions.
C) flagella.
D) peristalsis.
38) Which of the following occurs during cellular migration and development into specialized
tissue?
A) Cells are transferred to the appropriate region of the embryo via the bloodstream.
B) Cells fuse to produce multinucleated giant cells.
C) Similar cells glue themselves in place by secreting glycoproteins.
D) Most cells of the developing tissue undergo the process of apoptosis.
39) Which of the following describes apoptosis?
A) programmed cell death
B) gastrulation
C) phagocytosis
D) neural tube formation
40) Research indicates that ________ respond(s) to ________ signals that inform a cell about its
position relative to other cells in the embryo.
A) nervous tissue; hormonal
B) master control genes; chemical
C) organs; radio
D) organelles; chemical
41) The discovery of ________ explains embryonic pattern formation in a wide variety of
organisms.
A) the three-dimensional forms of animals
B) gastrulation
C) homeotic genes
D) programmed cell death
42) Suppose that during the embryonic development of a hand, homeotic gene expression is
altered such that the dorsal-ventral axis is switched. What is the most likely outcome of this
scenario?
A) The palm and back of the hand will be switched.
B) The pinky and thumb would be switched.
C) The shoulder and hand would be switched.
D) The foot and hand would be switched.
43) Another term for gestation is
A) conception.
B) fertilization.
C) development.
D) pregnancy.
44) When does the human blastocyst implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) only after all four extraembryonic membranes become established
45) The yolk sac of humans
A) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo.
B) is evidence of humans’ relationships with egg-laying vertebrates.
C) secretes HCG.
D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother’s blood.
46) The human embryo’s first blood cells arise in the
A) developing liver.
B) developing bone marrow.
C) yolk sac.
D) allantois.
47) What would happen if the chorion failed to secrete human chorionic gonadotropin?
A) The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
B) The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
C) Neural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would have no central nervous
system.
D) The embryo would be aborted.
48) Which of the following structures contributes to the structure of the placenta as well as
completely surrounding the embryo?
A) chorion
B) amnion
C) yolk sac
D) allantois
49) At which gestational age does a developing human fetus first look obviously human and not
like other vertebrate embryos?
A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 9 weeks
D) 4 months
50) Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?
A) formation of external features such as arms and legs
B) formation of hair and fingernails
C) rapid growth
D) organ formation
51) Which of the following occurs during the process of labor?
A) positive feedback involving oxytocin and prostaglandins
B) negative feedback involving oxytocin and prostaglandins
C) positive feedback involving estrogen and human chorionic gonadotropin
D) negative feedback involving estrogen and human chorionic gonadotropin
52) Contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor are initiated by
A) epinephrine.
B) estrogen.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
53) Which of the following options correctly lists the three stages of labor in the order in which
they occur?
A) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta
B) dilation, crowning, expulsion
C) contractions, dilation, expulsion
D) dilation, crowning, delivery of the placenta
54) Which of the following statements regarding infertility and fertilization procedures is true?
A) Embryos fertilized through assisted reproductive technologies cannot be frozen for later use,
as they degrade rapidly.
B) In GIFT, sperm are injected into an embryo in vitro, and the embryo is placed into the
oviducts.
C) In IVF, fertilization occurs in a dish. The embryo is allowed to develop for several days, and
then the embryo is placed into the uterus.
D) Children conceived using reproductive technologies such as IVF and ICSI display a high rate
of abnormalities resulting from these procedures.