Financial Markets and Institutions, 6e (Mishkin/Eakins)
Chapter 25 Hedging with Financial Derivatives
25.1 Multiple Choice
1) Financial derivatives include
A) stocks.
B) bonds.
C) futures.
D) none of the above.
2) Financial derivatives include
A) stocks.
B) bonds.
C) forward contracts.
D) both A and B.
3) Which of the following is not a financial derivative?
A) Stock
B) Futures
C) Options
D) Forward contracts
4) A contract that requires the investor to buy securities on a future date is called a
A) short contract.
B) long contract.
C) hedge.
D) cross.
5) A contract that requires the investor to sell securities on a future date is called a
A) short contract.
B) long contract.
C) hedge.
D) micro hedge.
6) A long contract requires that the investor
A) sell securities in the future.
B) buy securities in the future.
C) hedge in the future.
D) close out his position in the future.
7) A short contract requires that the investor
A) sell securities in the future.
B) buy securities in the future.
C) hedge in the future.
D) close out his position in the future.
8) Which is not a problem of forward contracts?
A) a lack of liquidity
B) a lack of flexibility
C) the difficulty of finding a counterparty
D) default risk
9) By selling short a futures contract of $100,000 at a price of 115, you are agreeing to deliver
_________ face value securities for _________.
A) $100,000; $115,000
B) $115,000; $110,000
C) $100,000; $100,000
D) $115,000; $115,000
10) By selling short a futures contract of $100,000 at a price of 96, you are agreeing to deliver
_________ face value securities for _________.
A) $100,000; $104,167
B) $96,000; $100,000
C) $100,000; $96,000
D) $100,000; $100,000
11) By buying a long $100,000 futures contract for 115, you agree to pay _________ for _________
face value securities.
A) $100,000; $115,000
B) $115,000; $100,000
C) $86,956; $100,000
D) $86,956; $115,000
12) If you sell a short contract on financial futures, you hope interest rates will
A) rise.
B) fall.
C) not change.
D) fluctuate.
13) If you buy a long contract on financial futures, you hope interest rates will
A) rise.
B) fall.
C) not change.
D) fluctuate.
14) If you sell a short futures contract, you hope that bond prices will
A) rise.
B) fall.
C) not change.
D) fluctuate.
15) The elimination of riskless profit opportunities in the futures market is referred to as
A) speculation.
B) hedging.
C) arbitrage.
D) open interest.
E) mark to market.
16) Futures contracts are regularly traded on the
A) Chicago Board of Trade.
B) New York Stock Exchange.
C) American Stock Exchange.
D) Chicago Board Options Exchange.
17) Financial futures are regularly traded on all of the following except the
A) Chicago Board of Trade.
B) Chicago Mercantile Exchange.
C) New York Futures Exchange.
D) Chicago Commodity Markets Board.
18) The agency responsible for regulation of the futures exchanges and trading in financial
futures is the
A) Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
B) Securities and Exchange Commission.
C) Federal Trade Commission.
D) Futures Exchange Commission.
19) The purpose of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission is to do all of the following
except
A) oversee futures trading.
B) see that prices are not manipulated.
C) approve proposed futures contracts.
D) establish minimum prices for futures contracts.
20) The number of contracts outstanding in a particular financial future is the
A) demand coefficient.
B) open interest.
C) index level.
D) outstanding balance.
21) The futures markets have grown rapidly in recent years because
A) interest rate volatility has increased.
B) financial managers are more risk averse.
C) both A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
22) The advantage of forward contracts over futures contracts is that forward contracts
A) are standardized.
B) have lower default risk.
C) are more liquid.
D) none of the above.
23) The advantage of forward contracts over futures contracts is that forward contracts
A) are standardized.
B) have lower default risk.
C) are more flexible.
D) both A and B are true.
24) Futures markets have grown rapidly because futures contracts
A) are standardized.
B) have lower default risk.
C) are liquid.
D) all of the above.
25) Futures differ from forwards because they are
A) used to hedge portfolios.
B) used to hedge individual securities.
C) used in both financial and foreign exchange markets.
D) standardized contracts.
26) Futures differ from forwards because they are
A) used to hedge portfolios.
B) used to hedge individual securities.
C) used in both financial and foreign exchange markets.
D) marked to market daily.
27) Which of the following features of Treasury bond futures contracts were not designed to
increase liquidity?
A) Standardized contracts.
B) Traded up until maturity.
C) Not tied to one specific type of bond.
D) Marked to market daily.
28) Which of the following features of Treasury bond futures contracts were not designed to
increase liquidity?
A) Standardized contracts.
B) Traded up until maturity.
C) Not tied to one specific type of bond.
D) Can be closed with offsetting trade.
29) When a financial institution hedges the interest–rate risk for a specific asset, the hedge is
called a
A) macro hedge.
B) micro hedge.
C) cross hedge.
D) futures hedge.
30) When a financial institution is hedging interest–rate risk on its overall portfolio, the hedge is
a
A) macro hedge.
B) micro hedge.
C) cross hedge.
D) futures hedge.
31) The risk that occurs because stock prices fluctuate is called
A) stock market risk.
B) reinvestment risk.
C) interest–rate risk.
D) default risk.
32) The most widely traded stock index future is on the
A) Dow Jones 1000 index.
B) S&P 500 index.
C) NASDAQ index.
D) Dow Jones 30 index.
33) Who would be most likely to buy a long stock index future?
A) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will rise
B) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will fall
C) A mutual fund manager who believes the market will be stable
D) None of the above would be likely to purchase a futures contract
34) If you buy a futures contract on the S&P 500 Index at a price of 450 and the index rises to
500, you will
A) lose $12,500.
B) gain $12,500.
C) lose $50.
D) gain $50.
35) If you sell a futures contract on the S&P 500 Index at a price of 450 and the index rises to 500,
you will
A) lose $12,500.
B) gain $12,500.
C) lose $50.
D) gain $50.
36) Which of the following is a likely reason for a portfolio manager to sell a stock index future
short?
A) He believes the market will rise.
B) He wants to lock in current prices.
C) He wants to reduce stock market risk.
D) Both B and C are correct.
37) If a portfolio manager believes stock prices will fall and knows that a block of funds will be
received in the future, then he should
A) sell stock index futures short.
B) buy stock index futures long.
C) stay out of the futures market.
D) borrow and buy securities now.
38) If a firm is due to be paid in euros in two months, to hedge against exchange rate risk the
firm should
A) sell foreign exchange futures short.
B) buy foreign exchange futures long.
C) stay out of the exchange futures market.
D) do none of the above.
39) If a firm must pay for goods it has ordered with foreign currency, it can hedge its foreign
exchange rate risk by
A) selling foreign exchange futures short.
B) buying foreign exchange futures long.
C) staying out of the exchange futures market.
D) doing none of the above.
40) Options are contracts that give the purchasers the
A) opportunity to buy or sell an underlying asset.
B) the obligation to buy or sell an underlying asset.
C) the right to hold an underlying asset.
D) the right to switch payment streams.
41) The price specified in an option contract at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying
asset is called the
A) premium.
B) call.
C) strike price.
D) put.
42) The price specified in an option contract at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying
asset is called the
A) premium.
B) strike price.
C) exercise price.
D) both B and C are true.
43) The seller of an option has the
A) right to buy or sell the underlying asset.
B) the obligation to buy or sell the underlying asset.
C) ability to reduce transaction risk.
D) right to exchange one payment stream for another.
44) The seller of an option has the _________ to buy or sell the underlying asset, while the
purchaser of an option has the _________ to buy or sell the asset.
A) obligation; right
B) right; obligation
C) obligation; obligation
D) right; right
45) An option that can be exercised at any time up to maturity is called a(n)
A) swap.
B) stock option.
C) European option.
D) American option.
46) An option that can be exercised only at maturity is called a(n)
A) swap.
B) stock option.
C) European option.
D) American option.
47) Options on individual stocks are referred to as
A) stock options.
B) futures options.
C) American options.
D) individual options.
48) Options on futures contracts are referred to as
A) stock options.
B) futures options.
C) American options.
D) individual options.
49) The agency which regulates stock options is the
A) Securities and Exchange Commission.
B) Commodities Futures Trading Commission.
C) Federal Trade Commission.
D) Both A and B are true.
50) The agency which regulates futures options is the
A) Securities and Exchange Commission.
B) Commodities Futures Trading Commission.
C) Federal Trade Commission.
D) Both A and B are true.
51) An option that gives the owner the right to buy a financial instrument at the exercise price
within a specified period of time is a(n)
A) call option.
B) put option.
C) American option.
D) European option.
52) An option that gives the owner the right to sell a financial instrument at the exercise price
within a specified period of time is a(n)
A) call option.
B) put option.
C) American option.
D) European option.
53) A call option gives the owner the _________ to _________ the underlying security.
A) right; sell
B) obligation; sell
C) right; buy
D) obligation; buy
54) A put option gives the owner the _________ to _________ the underlying security.
A) right; sell
B) obligation; sell
C) right; buy
D) obligation; buy
55) A call option gives the seller the _________ to _________ the underlying security.
A) right; sell
B) obligation; sell
C) right; buy
D) obligation; buy
56) A put option gives the seller the _________ to _________ the underlying security.
A) right; sell
B) obligation; sell
C) right; buy
D) obligation; buy
57) If you buy an option to buy Treasury futures at 115, and at expiration the market price is 110,
A) the call will be exercised.
B) the put will be exercised.
C) the call will not be exercised.
D) the put will not be exercised.
58) If you buy an option to sell Treasury futures at 115, and at expiration the market price is 110,
A) the call will be exercised.
B) the put will be exercised.
C) the call will not be exercised.
D) the put will not be exercised.
59) If you buy an option to buy Treasury futures at 110, and at expiration the market price is 115,
A) the call will be exercised.
B) the put will be exercised.
C) the call will not be exercised.
D) the put will not be exercised.
60) If you buy an option to sell Treasury futures at 110, and at expiration the market price is 115,
A) the call will be exercised.
B) the put will be exercised.
C) the call will not be exercised.
D) the put will not be exercised.
61) The main advantage of using options on futures contracts rather than the futures contracts
themselves is that interest–rate risk is
A) controlled while preserving the possibility of gains.
B) controlled while removing the possibility of losses.
C) not controlled but the possibility of gains is preserved.
D) not controlled but the possibility of gains is lost.
62) The main reason to buy an option on a futures contract rather than the futures contract itself
is
A) to reduce transaction cost.
B) to preserve the possibility for gains.
C) to limit losses.
D) to remove the possibility for gains.
63) The main disadvantage of futures contracts as compared to options on futures contracts is
that futures
A) remove the possibility of gains.
B) increase the transactions cost.
C) are not as effective a hedge.
D) do not remove the possibility of losses.
64) All other things held constant, premiums on put options will increase when the
A) exercise price increases.
B) volatility of the underlying asset falls.
C) term to maturity increases.
D) A and C are both true.
65) All other things held constant, premiums on call options will increase when the
A) exercise price falls.
B) volatility of the underlying asset falls.
C) term to maturity decreases.
D) futures price increases.
66) All other things held constant, premiums on both put and call options will increase when the
A) exercise price increases.
B) volatility of the underlying asset increases.
C) term to maturity decreases.
D) futures price increases.
67) An increase in the volatility of the underlying asset, all other things held constant, will
_________ the option premium.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) not affect
D) Not enough information is given.
68) An increase in the exercise price, all other things held constant, will _________ the premium
on call options.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) not affect
D) Not enough information is given.
69) If a bank manager wants to protect the bank against losses that would be incurred on its
portfolio of Treasury securities should interest rates rise, he could _________ options on
financial futures.
A) buy put
B) buy call
C) sell put
D) sell call
70) A financial contract that obligates one party to exchange a set of payments it owns for
another set of payments owned by another party is called a
A) cross hedge.
B) cross call option.
C) cross put option.
D) swap.
71) A swap that involves the exchange of a set of payments in one currency for a set of payments
in another currency is a(n)
A) interest–rate swap.
B) currency swap.
C) swaption.
D) notional swap.
72) A swap that involves the exchange of one set of interest payments for another set of interest
payments is called a(n)
A) interest–rate swap.
B) currency swap.
C) swaption.
D) notional swap.
73) If Second National Bank has more rate–sensitive assets than rate–sensitive liabilities, it can
reduce interest–rate risk with a swap which requires Second National to
A) pay a fixed rate while receiving a floating rate.
B) receive a fixed rate while paying a floating rate.
C) both receive and pay a fixed rate.
D) both receive and pay a floating rate.
74) If Second National Bank has more rate–sensitive liabilities than rate–sensitive assets, it can
reduce interest–rate risk with a swap which requires Second National to
A) pay a fixed rate while receiving a floating rate.
B) receive a fixed rate while paying a floating rate.
C) both receive and pay a fixed rate.
D) both receive and pay a floating rate.
75) If a bank has a gap of –$10 million, it can reduce its interest–rate risk by
A) paying a fixed rate on $10 million and receiving a floating rate on $10 million.
B) paying a floating rate on $10 million and receiving a fixed rate on $10 million.
C) selling $20 million fixed–rate assets.
D) buying $20 million fixed–rate assets.
76) One advantage of using swaps to eliminate interest–rate risk is that swaps
A) are less costly than futures.
B) are less costly than rearranging balance sheets.
C) are more liquid than futures.
D) have better accounting treatment than options.
77) The disadvantage of swaps is that
A) they lack liquidity.
B) it is difficult to arrange for a counterparty.
C) they suffer from default risk.
D) all of the above.
78) As compared to a default on the notional principle, a default on a swap
A) is more costly.
B) is about as costly.
C) is less costly.
D) may cost more or less than default on the notional principle.
79) Intermediaries are active in the swap markets because
A) they increase liquidity.
B) they reduce default risk.
C) they reduce search cost.
D) all of the above are true.
80) A valid concern about financial derivatives is that
A) they allow financial institutions to increase their leverage.
B) they are too sophisticated because they are so complicated.
C) the notional amounts can greatly exceed a financial institution’s capital.
D) all of the above are valid concerns.
E) none of the above is a valid concern.
81) The biggest danger of financial derivatives occurs
A) when notional amounts exceed a bank’s capital.
B) when financial market prices and rates are highly volatile.
C) in trading activities of financial institutions.
D) in the large amount of credit exposure.
25.2 True/False
1) A forward contract is more flexible than a futures contract.
2) Futures contracts are standardized.
3) A long contract obligates the holder to sell securities in the future.
4) A short contract obligates the holder to sell securities in the future.
5) One problem with a futures contract is finding a counterparty.
6) Futures contracts are subject to default risk.
7) Futures trading is regulated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
8) Open interest allows investors to change the interest rate on futures contracts.
9) To reduce the interest–rate risk of holding a portfolio of bonds, Treasury bond futures
contracts should be bought.
10) To reduce foreign exchange risk from selling goods to a foreign country, futures contracts
should be sold.
11) An option that gives the holder the right to buy an asset in the future is a put.
12) Option premiums increase as the term to maturity increases.
13) Option premiums fall as the volatility of the underlying asset falls.
14) Using options to control interest–rate risk reduces the chance of a loss but increases the
chance of a gain.
15) One advantage of using options to hedge is that the accounting transaction will never
require the firm to show large unrecognized losses.
16) Interest–rate swaps involve the exchange of a set of payments in one currency for a set of
payments in another.
17) Currency swaps involve the exchange of a set of payments on one currency for a set of
payments in another.
18) If Friendly Finance Company has more rate–sensitive assets than rate–sensitive liabilities, it
may reduce risk with a swap.
19) Interest–rate swaps are more liquid than futures contracts.
20) Intermediaries add value to the swap market by reducing default risk.
25.3
Essay
1) Distinguish between forward and futures contracts.
2) Why have the futures markets grown so rapidly in recent years?
3) Explain how a short hedge could be used to hedge a Treasury portfolio against interest–rate
risk.
4) Explain how a long hedge could be used to protect a bank from the risk that interest rates
could rise before a loan is funded.
5) How would a firm use exchange rate futures to lock in current exchange rates?
6) Explain how a swap could be used to reduce interest–rate risk for a bank with more rate–
sensitive assets than rate–sensitive liabilities.
7) Define and distinguish between call options and put options.
8) Explain how option contracts could be used to protect against losses in portfolio value that
may occur as interest rates increase.
9) Explain the advantages of protecting against interest–rate risk using options rather than
futures contracts.
10) Discuss the advantages of using swaps to protect against interest–rate risk rather than
restructuring the balance sheet.