Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1)
Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
1)
A)
allergic contact dermatitis
B)
cytotoxic hypersensitivity
C)
immune complex hypersensitivity
D)
anaphylaxis
2)
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.
2)
A)
A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body.
B)
Immunological memory is established by passive immunization.
C)
The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism.
D)
Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use
antibodies.
D
3)
Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.
3)
A)
The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that
recognizes CD4 proteins.
B)
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
C)
Hodgkin’s disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.
D)
The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft–versus–host (GVH) disease.
A
4)
Which immunoglobulin class is attached to the external surface of B cells and acts as an antigen
receptor of the B cell?
4)
A)
IgD
B)
IgM
C)
IgA
D)
IgG
E)
IgE
A
A
5)
Which of the following determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system
will be able to recognize and resist?
5)
A)
The type of antigen
B)
Our genes
C)
Memory cell production
D)
Enzymes present at the time of the invasion
6)
B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.
6)
A)
spleen
B)
bone marrow
C)
lymph nodes
D)
thymus
7)
Which of the following is not a method by which antibodies work?
7)
A)
agglutinating and precipitating antigen
B)
neutralizing antigen
C)
enhancing phagocytosis
D)
direct cell lysis
8)
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?
8)
A)
composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
B)
incapable of being transferred from one person to another
C)
carbohydrate structure
D)
three binding sites per antibody monomer
9)
Immunocompetence ________.
9)
A)
prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader
B)
occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
C)
is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
D)
requires exposure to an antigen
10)
Innate immune system defenses include ________.
10)
A)
B cells
B)
T cells
C)
phagocytosis
D)
plasma cells
11)
Cytotoxic T cells ________.
11)
A)
require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to
function
B)
self–destruct once the antigen has been neutralized
C)
function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations
D)
are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
12)
In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will
eventually become cloned?
12)
A)
interferon
B)
complement
C)
antigen
D)
antibody
13)
Clonal selection of B cells ________.
13)
A)
results in the formation of plasma cells
B)
occurs during fetal development
C)
only occurs in the secondary immune response
D)
cannot occur in the presence of antigens
14)
Delayed hypersensitivities ________.
14)
A)
are mediated by B cells
B)
do not involve T cells
C)
include anaphylactic shock, a systemic vasodilation that results in inadequate blood delivery
to all tissues
D)
include allergic contact dermatitis
15)
Which of the following cells predominate at the sites of chronic infections?
15)
A)
Basophils
B)
Macrophages
C)
B cells
D)
Eosinophils
16)
Which of the following does not respond to cell–mediated immunity?
16)
A)
foreign tissue transplants
B)
intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells
C)
pathogens in the lumen of the stomach
D)
some cancer cells
C
17)
The antibody molecule is held together by ________ bonds.
17)
A)
disulfide
B)
sodium
C)
hydrogen
D)
amino acid
A
18)
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
18)
A)
The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG.
B)
Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection.
C)
Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together.
D)
Antibodies may directly destroy “invaders.”
B
19)
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
19)
A)
disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
B)
sets the stage for repair processes
C)
prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
D)
replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
D
B
20)
Activated T cells and macrophages release ________ to mobilize immune cells and attract other
leukocytes into the area.
20)
A)
Cytokines
B)
Interleukin 1 proteins
C)
Perforins
D)
Interleukin 2 proteins
21)
Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?
21)
A)
helper T cell
B)
APC
C)
B cell
D)
cytotoxic T cell
A
22)
Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on “self.”
22)
A)
Tolerance to self is due to the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response
to one’s own tissues.
B)
Tolerance is developed during fetal life.
C)
Neutrophils capable of binding to self–antigens are chemically inactivated.
D)
The development of tolerance is specific to B cells only.
B
23)
Natural killer (NK) cells ________.
23)
A)
are also called cytotoxic T cells
B)
are cells of the adaptive immune system
C)
can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
D)
are a type of phagocyte
C
24)
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?
24)
A)
chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing
B)
ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing
C)
chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing
D)
adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis
C
A
25)
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
25)
A)
The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary
lymph organs. All other lymphoid organs are referred to as secondary lymphoid organs.
B)
T cells and B cells become activated when they bind with recognized antigens.
C)
After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone
marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.
D)
It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune
system will be able to recognize and resist.
26)
Which of the following is not a type of T cell?
26)
A)
regulatory
B)
antigenic
C)
helper
D)
cytotoxic
27)
Which of the statements below does not describe antigens?
27)
A)
Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large
polysaccharides.
B)
Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity.
C)
The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic
determinants.
D)
Antigens only come from microbes.
28)
Select the correct statement about antigens.
28)
A)
One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the
formation of more than one antibody.
B)
Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
C)
The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
D)
“Self–antigens” is another name for incomplete antigens.
29)
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site
is called ________.
29)
A)
margination
B)
phagocytosis
C)
diapedesis
D)
chemotaxis
30)
Antibody functions include all of the following except ________.
30)
A)
linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution
B)
cross–linking cell–bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
C)
targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis
D)
binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
31)
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling
macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.
31)
A)
agglutination
B)
opsonization
C)
diapedesis
D)
chemotaxis
32)
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.
32)
A)
complement production
B)
vasodilation
C)
phagocyte mobilization
D)
vasoconstriction
33)
Phagocyte mobilization involves ________.
33)
A)
margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into
injured tissues
B)
mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
C)
monocytes as the most active phagocyte
D)
diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall
34)
Helper T cells ________.
34)
A)
release B7 proteins
B)
function in the adaptive immune system activation
C)
bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
D)
often function to decrease the immune response
35)
Select the correct definition about tissue grafts.
35)
A)
Autografts are between two genetically identical individuals.
B)
Xenografts are between individuals of the same species.
C)
Isografts are between identical twins.
D)
Allografts are between different species.
36)
Which of the following is not a role of activated complement?
36)
A)
opsonization
B)
enhancement of inflammation
C)
insertion of MAC and cell lysis
D)
prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
37)
T–cell activation requires ________.
37)
A)
antibody production and co–stimulation
B)
antigen binding, antibody production, and co–stimulation
C)
antigen binding and co–stimulation
D)
antigen binding and antibody production
38)
Which of the following statements is incorrect or false?
38)
A)
MHC proteins are the cell‘s identity markers.
B)
Class 1 MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all body cells.
C)
Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers.
D)
Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen–presenting cells, thymic cells,
and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.
39)
B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.
39)
A)
producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
B)
forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
C)
immediately producing antigen–specific antibodies
D)
reducing its size
40)
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?
40)
A)
passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
B)
infusion of weakened viruses
C)
booster shot of vaccine
D)
exposure to an antigen
41)
Which statement is true about T cells?
41)
A)
Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines.
B)
They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells.
C)
Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
D)
They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.
42)
Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?
42)
A)
mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present
B)
exposure of previously “hidden” self–antigens to the adaptive immune system
C)
a second exposure to an allergen
D)
cross–reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self–antigens
43)
What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?
43)
A)
protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
B)
protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
C)
activates the inflammatory process
D)
activates the complement mechanism
44)
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
44)
A)
type II diabetes
B)
multiple sclerosis
C)
systemic lupus erythematosus
D)
glomerulonephritis
45)
Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following except ________.
45)
A)
hepatitis
B)
pregnancy
C)
juvenile diabetes
D)
rabies
46)
Regulatory T cells ________.
46)
A)
aid B cells in antibody production
B)
release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells
C)
may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
D)
decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases
47)
The primary immune response ________.
47)
A)
is another name for immunological memory
B)
occurs when memory cells are stimulated
C)
has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
D)
occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
48)
Cancer cells and virus–infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by
________.
48)
A)
natural killer cells
B)
pinocytosis
C)
B lymphocytes
D)
T lymphocytes
49)
Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
49)
A)
gastric juice
B)
phagocytes
C)
keratin
D)
cilia
50)
Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities?
50)
A)
They include allergic contact dermatitis.
B)
They are adaptive immune responses to disease organisms.
C)
They are also called type IV hypersensitivities.
D)
They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.
51)
Small molecules that bind with self–proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.
51)
A)
reagins
B)
antibodies
C)
ions
D)
haptens
52)
Interferons ________.
52)
A)
are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold
B)
act by increasing the rate of cell division
C)
are virus–specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells
against another virus
D)
interfere with viral replication within cells
53)
Which of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive immune system?
53)
A)
It is specific for a given organ.
B)
It is antigen–specific.
C)
It is systemic.
D)
It has memory.
A
54)
Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
54)
A)
reactivity with an antibody
B)
contain many repeating chemical units
C)
inhibit production of antibodies
D)
small molecules
A
55)
Which of the following is not a complement activation pathway?
55)
A)
lectin pathway
B)
classical pathway
C)
alternative pathway
D)
lactate pathway
D
56)
Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?
56)
A)
NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow.
B)
NK cells attack cancer cells and virus–infected body cells.
C)
NK cells are a type of neutrophil.
D)
NK cells attack cells that display abnormal MHC antigens.
C
D
57)
Fever ________.
57)
A)
causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
B)
production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting
C)
decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
D)
is a higher–than–normal body temperature that is always dangerous
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
58)
The antibody that becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to
release histamine and other chemicals is ________.
58)
Answer:
IgE
Explanation:
Figure 21.1
Using Figure 21.1, match the following:
59)
Heavy chain.
59)
Answer:
Explanation:
60)
Harmful or disease–causing microorganisms are called ________.
60)
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
61)
What is the antigen challenge, and where does it usually take place?
61)
62)
The most common type of immediate hypersensitivity is ________.
62)
63)
What are some of the drawbacks of passive humoral immunity?
63)
64)
Why are regulatory T cells important to the immune process?
64)
Figure 21.2
Using Figure 21.2, match the following:
65)
Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur.
65)
Figure 21.1
Using Figure 21.1, match the following:
66)
Antigen–binding site.
66)
67)
What are two general mechanisms by which autoimmune diseases could arise?
67)
68)
A(n) ________ is a cell hybrid formed from the fusion of tumor cells and B lymphocytes.
68)
69)
List and briefly discuss innate body defenses to disease.
69)
Figure 21.1
Using Figure 21.1, match the following:
70)
Variable region.
70)
71)
Septic shock is a dangerous condition where the ________ are released unchecked, making
the capillaries very leaky and thus depleting blood fluids.
71)