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Chapter 20—A Lifetime of Health
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. By 2030, what percentage of the American population will be over age 65?
a.
5%
b.
10%
c.
15%
d.
20%
2. Which group is the fastest growing cohort in America?
a.
55-64 years
b.
65-74 years
c.
75-84 years
d.
85 years and over
3. Estrogen:
a.
may lead to deteriorating blood vessels
b.
bolsters immunity
c.
contributes to a shorter life span in women
d.
weakens bones
4. Which factor is perhaps the most critical to living long and well?
a.
retiring early
b.
not smoking
c.
being married
d.
avoiding alcohol
5. What is perhaps the greatest benefit of physical activity for older Americans?
a.
lower risk of cataracts
b.
greater ability to live independently
c.
better memory
d.
faster recovery after replacement surgeries
6. The most common nutrition disorder in older persons is:
a.
osteoporosis
b.
constipation
c.
edema
d.
obesity
7. Which mental ability may begin to diminish by age 75?
a.
critical thinking
b.
intellectual speed
c.
verbal intelligence
d.
problem solving
8. ____ is the complete cessation of menstrual periods for 12 consecutive months.
a.
Perimenopause
b.
Menopause
c.
Andropause
d.
Menarche
9. What is one normal change that occurs as one ages?
a.
An increase in vaginal lubrication
b.
Less time needed to achieve an erection
c.
A decrease in sexual pleasure and desire
d.
Fewer contractions during orgasm
10. Osteoporosis:
a.
begins in old age
b.
occurs frequently in men
c.
is reversible
d.
is an acute disease
11. Instructions that specify the kind of medical treatment individuals want in case of a medical crisis are
known as:
a.
personal medical orders
b.
advance directives
c.
emergency orders
d.
conditional directives
12. Which form gives someone the power to make decisions on your behalf?
a.
emergency order
b.
conditional directive
c.
health-care proxy
d.
DNR initiative
13. Which statement is true concerning living wills?
a.
Living wills are least effective when they focus on goals and priorities.
b.
Living wills are not considered legally binding.
c.
Living wills provide instructions for the use or nonuse of life-sustaining procedures.
d.
Living wills should be kept in a secure place like a safe deposit box.
14. What order applies mainly to the hospitalized or terminally ill, stating that you want to die naturally?
a.
do-not-resuscitate
b.
conditional will
c.
healthcare proxy
d.
emergency instruction
15. What term describe the situation in which a person dies without a will?
a.
by proxy
b.
intestate
c.
without directive
d.
ad lidum
16. A state of total unconsciousness is called:
a.
a vegetative state
b.
hypnosis
c.
a coma
d.
relaxation
17. Individuals who are awake yet unaware are in a:
a.
persistent vegetative state
b.
shock condition
c.
coma
d.
deep depression episode
18. An individual in a persistent vegetative state may:
a.
moan
b.
breath on their own
c.
drink water
d.
respond to pain
19. Which statement best describes organ transplants?
a.
You can fill out an organ donor card once you turn 16.
b.
Concerns about disfigurement might play a role in the family’s decision.
c.
Younger men and women have higher donation rates.
d.
Corneas cannot be donated.
20. The end of all vital functions, including heartbeat and respiration, is known as:
a.
functional death
b.
cellular death
c.
cardiac death
d.
brain death
21. Cellular death occurs after:
a.
the soul leaves the body
b.
the heart stops beating
c.
brain activity stops
d.
respiration stops
22. Most states have declared that an individual is dead when:
a.
the soul leaves the body
b.
cells die from lack of oxygen
c.
the heart stops beating
d.
the brain ceases functioning
23. What type of death is confirmed by an electroencephalogram?
a.
functional death
b.
cellular death
c.
cardiac death
d.
brain death
24. Approximately ____ million people die in the United States each year.
a.
1.5
b.
2.4
c.
3.3
d.
4.0
25. What reaction is one of five typical stages when facing death?
a.
guilt
b.
anger
c.
anxiety
d.
relief
26. What is likely to be someone’s first reaction upon learning that s/he has terminal cancer?
a.
anger
b.
bargaining
c.
depression
d.
denial
27. In what Kübler-Ross stage is an individual likely to negotiate with God to try and reverse or postpone
death?
a.
anger
b.
depression
c.
bargaining
d.
denial
28. In what Kübler-Ross stage would a person question and have strong feelings of resentment about a
terminal diagnosis?
a.
bargaining
b.
anger
c.
depression
d.
denial
29. According to the text, which Kübler-Ross stage is perhaps the most difficult for the dying?
a.
bargaining
b.
anger
c.
depression
d.
acceptance
30. An individual realizes that death is a reality in which Kübler-Ross stage?
a.
bargaining
b.
denial
c.
depression
d.
acceptance
31. What is the leading cause of death among men aged 20-24?
a.
unintentional injury
b.
homicide
c.
suicide
d.
cancer
32. What is the second leading cause of death for women aged 20-24?
a.
unintentional injury
b.
suicide
c.
homicide
d.
cancer
33. Who is most likely to become a caregiver when someone becomes terminally ill?
a.
neighbor
b.
daughter
c.
nurse
d.
friend
34. What is a home-like healthcare facility that helps dying patients?
a.
nursing home
b.
assisted living facility
c.
rehabilitation facility
d.
hospice
35. Who is a typical hospice team member?
a.
lawyer
b.
dentist
c.
chaplain
d.
doula
36. Which statement is true concerning hospice programs?
a.
Most hospice patients have a life expectancy of one year or more.
b.
Hospice programs do not offer emotional care to loved ones.
c.
Hospice care is often available around the clock as needed.
d.
Hospice services are not covered by insurance.
37. What term best describes a scene in which an individual survives a close brush with death and
describes watching from the air as their own body is resuscitated?
a.
autopsy
b.
autoscopy
c.
regeneration
d.
post-trauma
38. What is a near-death experience in which individuals have a sense of passing into a foreign
dimension?
a.
autopsy
b.
autoscopy
c.
transcendence
d.
post-trauma
39. What is thought to play a role in causing near-death experiences?
a.
radiation
b.
lack of oxygen
c.
muscle spasms
d.
increased visual acuity
40. Stopping any extraordinary efforts to sustain life is called:
a.
passive euthanasia
b.
autoscopy
c.
autonomy
d.
suicide
41. The average national costs range as high as ____for a burial in the United States.
a.
$4,500
b.
$6,000
c.
$7,500
d.
$9,000
42. A detailed examination of a body after death is called a(n)
a.
physical exam
b.
autonomy
c.
autoscopy
d.
autopsy
43. What type of autopsy provides information about a death that is used for a legal proceeding?
a.
mandated
b.
medicolegal
c.
binding
d.
conditional
44. The type of autopsy performed to increase medical knowledge is called:
a.
conditional
b.
medicolegal
c.
partial
d.
educational
45. Approximately ____ Americans lose a member of their immediate family each year.
a.
5 million
b.
8 million
c.
11 million
d.
13 million
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ is the characteristic pattern of normal life changes that occur as living things
grow older.
2. Approximately ____________________ percent of Americans over age 100 are women.
3. The most common nutritional disorder in elderly people is ____________________.
4. ____________________ represents the four-to-ten-year span before a woman's last period.
5. ____________________ is mainly recommended for short-term relief of hot flashes and night sweats.
6. The drop in testosterone in men between the ages of 48 and 70 is often called
____________________.
7. ____________________ increases the risk of bone fractures.
8. ____________________ is classified as the progressive deterioration of brain cells and mental
capacity.
9. ____________________ is the top risk factor for Alzheimer's disease.
10. Women, who have smaller skeletons, are more susceptible to ____________________ than men.
11. A(n) ____________________ DNR specifies an individual's wish not to be resuscitated at home.
12. A(n) ____________________ document helps the aged, the seriously ill, their loved ones, and
caregivers prepare for medical crises.
13. The moment the soul leaves the body is considered ____________________ death.
14. The second stage of responding to death when a patient learns that death is coming is called
____________________.
15. One positive aspect of ____________________ programs is the medical and emotional care offered to
both patients and family members or caregivers.
16. Due to advances in emergency medical care, the number of reported ____________________
experiences has grown.
17. One of the main factors leading to suicide is ____________________.
18. ____________________ occurs when a health professional provides a patient with the means to end
his or her life.
19. ____________________ is the incineration of an individual's remains.
20. The active form of “mercy killing” known as ____________________ is generally viewed as illegal
and unethical.
MATCHING
Match the items below with the most appropriate description.
a.
dementia
f.
senesce
b.
anger
g.
osteoporosis
c.
subdromal hot flash
h.
denial
d.
death
i.
intestate
e.
autoscopy
j.
autopsy
1. night sweats
2. without a will
3. when the heart stops
4. death of egg cells
5. "no, not me."
6. watching resuscitation attempts
7. loss of mental capabilities
8. loss in bone density
9. exam of a body after death
10. "why me?"
ESSAY
1. Identify the “Five Wishes” that help people prepare for medical crises.
ANS:
2. List and describe the different categories of death.
3. Outline the five stages of Kübler-Ross' emotional responses to death with a brief description of each
stage.
4. Identify reasons why the number of reported near-death experiences have increased, and discuss two
types of these near-death experiences.
5. Discuss the effects that grieving can have on one’s health. Identify what one can do to effectively cope
with grief.
ANS:
