Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 1
Chapter 20 – Nuclear Chemistry
1. Which particle does the nuclide symbol represent?
A)
helium nucleus
B)
electron
C)
positron
D)
proton
E)
gamma photon
2. Which of the following concerning nuclear chemistry is/are correct?
1.
Beta particle emission produces a nucleus with one additional neutron and one
additional proton.
2.
No stable nuclides are known above atomic number 83.
3.
In electron capture a proton is converted to a neutron through the capture of an
inner orbital electron.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
2 and 3
E)
1, 2, and 3
3. Which particle has the same mass as a beta particle?
A)
a neutron
B)
a proton
C)
a gamma ray
D)
an alpha particle
E)
a positron
4. Which of the following nuclides will produce 192Pt upon undergoing beta decay?
A)
192Ir
B)
193Pt
C)
192Au
D)
196Hg
E)
188Os
5. Which of the following nuclides will produce 233Pa upon undergoing alpha decay?
A)
234Pa
B)
233U
C)
229Ra
D)
237Np
E)
233Th
6. Which of the following nuclides will produce 243Am upon undergoing alpha decay?
A)
247Bk
B)
239Np
C)
243Pu
D)
243Cm
E)
244Am
7. Which of the following statements about 248Bk is incorrect?
A)
If 248Bk were to undergo spontaneous fission, the products would be 247Bk and a
neutron.
B)
If 248Bk were to undergo beta decay, the products would be 248Cf and a beta
particle.
C)
If 248Bk were to undergo alpha decay, the products would be 244Am and an alpha
particle.
D)
If 248Bk were to undergo electron capture, the only product would be 248Cm.
E)
If a metastable form of 248Bk were to undergo gamma decay, the products would
be 248Bk and a gamma ray.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 3
8. can be prepared by electron capture from which of the following?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9. The gamma ray emission from the decay of cobalt-60 is used in cancer therapies. Cobalt-60
decays by the emission of two gamma rays followed by beta emission. What is the final
product of this decay process?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10. When undergoes electron capture, what is the product nuclide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11. When undergoes beta emission, what is the product nuclide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12. The radioactive nuclide, , undergoes decay by emitting a positron. What is the nuclear
composition of the product nuclide?
A)
12 protons and 10 neutrons
B)
11 protons and 11 neutrons
C)
11 protons and 10 neutrons
D)
9 protons and 12 neutrons
E)
10 protons and 12 neutrons
13. When the radioactive nuclide undergoes positron emission, what is the product
nuclide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14. When the radioactive nuclide undergoes electron capture, what is the product nuclide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15. When the radioactive nuclide undergoes alpha emission, what is the product nuclide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16. A sodium nucleus, , is bombarded with alpha particles to form a radioactive nuclide.
This product nuclide can decay by several routes. Which of the following sets of products
does not represent a potential route of decay of the product nuclide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17. Which of the following nuclides is most likely to be radioactive?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18. Which of the following nuclides is most likely to be radioactive?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1.
Neutrons increase the average distance between protons within the nuclei,
potentially leading to a more stable nucleus.
2.
Neutrons increase the binding energy of a nucleus without adding electrostatic
repulsion, potentially leading to a more stable nucleus.
3.
The conversion of a proton to a neutron through beta emission may produce a
stable isotope.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 2
E)
1, 2, and 3
20. Which of the following nuclear decay processes decreases the nuclear charge?
1.
Electron capture
2.
Beta emission
3.
Positron emission
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 2
E)
1 and 3
21. In the ejection of a beta particle from the nucleus, which of the following occurs?
A)
A neutron is converted to a proton and an electron.
B)
A neutron is converted to an electron and an alpha particle.
C)
A positron is converted to a neutron and a proton.
D)
A neutron is converted to a positron, an electron, and a gamma ray.
E)
A proton is converted to a neutron and a positron.
22. When a nucleus undergoes radioactive decay, its new mass number is
A)
always less than its original mass number.
B)
never more than its original mass number.
C)
never less than its original mass number.
D)
always the same as its original mass number.
E)
always more than its original mass number.
23. For which of the following radioactive decay processes does the atomic number not change?
A)
electron capture
B)
positron emission
C)
alpha emission
D)
gamma emission
E)
beta emission
24. When a neutron in the nucleus is converted to a proton, which of the following is emitted?
A)
positron
B)
beta particle
C)
alpha particle
D)
deuteron
E)
neutron
25. A radioactive isotope decays by emission followed by two emissions. What is the
change in the mass number and atomic number of the original isotope?
A)
The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number is unchanged.
B)
The mass number increases by 4 and the atomic number increases by 2.
C)
The mass number increases by 4 and the atomic number increases by 4.
D)
The mass number decreases by 2 and the atomic number decreases by 2.
E)
none of the above
26. When the nucleus of an element undergoes beta emission
A)
the mass number increases by one.
B)
the mass number decreases by one.
C)
the atomic number decreases by one.
D)
the number of neutrons increases by one.
E)
the atomic number increases by one.
27. Which particle has a +2 charge and is produced during the decay of some radioactive
elements?
A)
alpha particle
B)
beta particle
C)
proton
D)
positron
E)
deuteron
28. Nuclides with too many neutrons to be in the band of stability are most likely to decay by
what mode?
A)
–
B)
fission
C)
D)
+
E)
electron capture
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 9
29. Which types of processes are likely when the neutron-to-proton ratio in a nucleus is too
low?
I
decay
II
decay
III
positron emission
IV
electron capture
A)
III and IV only
B)
I and II only
C)
II, III, and IV
D)
II and IV only
E)
II and III only
30. A nucleus located to the left of the band of stability is expected to undergo what type of
nuclear decay?
A)
alpha emission
B)
electron capture
C)
positron emission
D)
fission
E)
electron emission
31. Which of the following is the most likely mode of decay for the radioactive nuclide ?
A)
positron emission
B)
gamma radiation
C)
beta emission
D)
alpha emission
E)
neutron emission
32. Which is the most likely mode of radioactive decay for the radioactive nuclide carbon-14?
A)
gamma emission
B)
alpha emission
C)
electron capture
D)
positron emission
E)
beta emission
33. Which of the following is the most probable mode of radioactive decay for the radioactive
nuclide ?
A)
beta emission
B)
gamma emission
C)
neutron emission
D)
alpha emission
E)
positron emission
34. The nuclide is radioactive. When one of these atoms decays, a series of and –
particle emissions occurs, taking the atom through many transformations to end up as an
atom of . How many particles are emitted in converting into ?
A)
6
B)
2
C)
214
D)
8
E)
4
35. In the radioactive decay series of plutonium-244 to form lead-208, how many alpha particles
and how many beta particles are emitted per plutonium atom?
A)
6 alpha particles and 6 beta particles
B)
3 alpha particles and 3 beta particles
C)
9 alpha particles and 6 beta particles
D)
12 alpha particles and 8 beta particles
E)
18 alpha particles and 9 beta particles
36. The following reaction is an example of what type of process?
A)
alpha decay
B)
deprotonation
C)
fission
D)
transmutation
E)
none of these
37. Which of the following particles cannot be accelerated to high speeds in a particle
accelerator or cyclotron?
A)
neutrons
B)
electrons
C)
protons
D)
alpha particles
E)
hydrogen nuclei
38. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear bombardment and transmutation
is/are correct?
1.
Alpha particles emitted by natural decay processes do not have sufficient
kinetic energy to penetrate and react with any nuclei.
2.
Particle accelerators and other nuclear transmutation methods were a crucial
component in the discovery of the lanthanide elements.
3.
The discovery of new elements by bombarding other elements with high
energy particles still continues to this day.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 3
E)
1, 2, and 3
39. What is the abbreviated notation for the following nuclear bombardment reaction?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40. Which of these is not a transuranium element?
A)
plutonium
B)
neptunium
C)
curium
D)
thorium
E)
americium
41. When absorbs a neutron, fission occurs. One possible fission pathway is as follows:
What is the missing isotope?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 13
42. The first nuclear reaction that was ever observed occurred when nitrogen-14 was bombarded
with alpha particles. One product was a proton, and the other was
A)
.
B)
.
C)
.
D)
.
E)
.
43. A particular nuclear bombardment reaction is represented by the abbreviated notation
. What is the identity of the nuclide X?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44. When 235U collides with one neutron, fission occurs. What is one possible set of products?
A)
four neutrons, , and
B)
four neutrons, , and
C)
four neutrons, , and
D)
four neutrons, , and
E)
four neutrons, , and
45. A Geiger counter measures radiation by detecting
A)
cations produced from radiation colliding with phosphor gases.
B)
alpha and beta particles as they strike a detector window.
C)
the increase in temperature when a gas is struck by radiation.
D)
flashes of light emitted from a phosphor affected by radiation.
E)
electrons released when gas atoms are ionized by the radiation.
46. A scintillation counter measures radiation by detecting
A)
cations produced from radiation colliding with phosphor gases.
B)
electrons released when gas atoms are ionized by the radiation.
C)
alpha and beta particles as they strike a detector window.
D)
the increase in temperature when a gas is struck by radiation.
E)
flashes of light emitted from a phosphor affected by radiation.
47. The activity of a radioactive source
A)
is a measure of the number of nuclear disintegrations per second.
B)
may be quantified in units of curies (Ci).
C)
is a measure of the energy released per kilogram of tissue.
D)
A and B
E)
B and C
48. Which of the following statements concerning radiation is/are correct?
1.
An argon filled Geiger counter tube cannot detect neutron radiation.
2.
Radiation only causes damage to biological materials.
3.
The greater relative biological effectiveness of alpha radiation compared to
neutron radiation means alpha radiation is more destructive to human tissue.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 3
E)
2 and 3
49. Which of the following correctly represents the relationship among rads, rems, and relative
biological effectiveness (RBE)?
A)
rems = rads RBE
B)
rads = rems RBE
C)
rads = rems ln(RBE)
D)
rems = rads + RBE
E)
none of these
50. Which of the following types of radioactive decay has the greatest relative biological
effectiveness (RBE)?
A)
alpha radiation
B)
electromagnetic radiation
C)
beta radiation
D)
gamma radiation
E)
neutron radiation
51. As a radioactive isotope decays, its rate constant
A)
remains the same.
B)
decreases.
C)
doubles.
D)
halves.
E)
increases.
52. Which of the following statements concerning radioactive decay is/are correct?
1.
The form of the rate law for a radioactive decay is the same as for a first-order
chemical process.
2.
The half-life of a radioactive sample is independent of the amount of the
sample.
3.
The determination of the approximate age of relics and other ancient items is
limited to radiocarbon (carbon-14) dating.